laminar below Re ≈ 2000, turbulent above Re ≈ 4000
Mean velocity
V = Q/A, A = π·D²/4
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g)
Minor losses
hm = ΣK·V²/(2g)
Typical K values
entrance 0.5, exit 1.0, 90° bend ≈ 0.3
Pressure drop
Δp = ρ·g·hf
Two open reservoirs
Δz = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Free outlet
H = (1 + f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Open-channel flow (Manning)
Manning equation
V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2
Flow rate
Q = A·V
Hydraulic radius
R = A/P (P = wetted perimeter, free surface excluded)
Rectangle
A = b·y, P = b + 2y
Trapezoid (side slope z:1)
A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²)
Circular pipe, full or half full
R = D/4
Required slope
S = (n·Q/(A·R2/3))²
Pumps & pump power
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp
Shaft power
Pshaft = Ph/ηpump
Electrical power
Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor
Pump head
H = Δz + Δp/(ρ·g) + hL
System losses
hL = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Normal distribution
z-score
z = (x − μ)/σ
Below x
P(X < x) = Φ(z)
Above x
P(X > x) = 1 − Φ(z)
Between
Φ(z2) − Φ(z1)
Percentile
x = μ + z·σ
Method
Convert the value to a z-score: z = (x − μ)/σ.
Look up Φ(z), the area to the left of z.
For the area to the right use 1 − Φ(z); for an interval subtract the two left areas.
For a percentile, work backwards: find z for the area, then x = μ + z·σ.
2Practice problems
1.Beam support reactionsMedium
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RB.
L = 8 mP1 = 45 kN at 1 mP2 = 40 kN at 7 m
RB = kN
2.Beam support reactionsHard
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RA.
L = 4 mP = 10 kN at 3 mw = 5 kN/m from 0 to 2 m
RA = kN
3.Truss: method of jointsMedium
Exactly one member of this truss carries no force under these loads. Which is the zero-force member? Click it in the diagram.
B: 10 kN ↓C: 30 kN ↓D: 15 kN ↓
1member AB
2member BC
3member CD
4member DE
5member FG
6member GH
7member AF
8member HE
9member BF
10member CG
11member DH
12member FC
13member HC
4.Truss: method of jointsHard
Use the method of joints to find the force FBC in member BC. Give tension as positive and compression as negative.
span = 4 mheight = 4 mB is 1 m from Avertical load = 40 kNhorizontal load = 20 kN ←
FBC = kN
5.Shear force & bending momentMedium
The marks A to G split the beam into six equal parts. At which mark is the bending moment largest in size, sagging or hogging? Click it in the diagram.
10 kN @ 10 m12 kN/m, 0–12 m
1A (x = 0 m)
2B (x = 2 m)
3C (x = 4 m)
4D (x = 6 m)
5E (x = 8 m)
6F (x = 10 m)
7G (x = 12 m)
6.Shear force & bending momentHard
Find the bending moment Mx at the section x = 4 m from support A. Use sagging moments positive and upward shear on the left face positive.
L = 10 mP = 30 kN at 1 mw = 3 kN/m from 0 to 10 mx = 4 m
Mx = kN·m
7.Beam deflectionMedium
A simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole span. Find the maximum deflection δmax, at midspan.
w = 5 kN/mL = 5 mE = 70 GPa (aluminium)I = 57 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δmax = mm
8.Beam deflectionHard
A simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load w and a point load P at midspan. Using superposition, find the midspan deflection δmax.
P = 8 kNw = 12 kN/mL = 6 mE = 200 GPa (steel)I = 57 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δmax = mm
9.Column bucklingMedium
A column of length L made of steel is pinned at both ends. Using Euler’s formula, find its critical buckling load Pcr.
L = 1.5 mE = 200 GPa (steel)d = 25 mm
Pcr = kN
10.Column bucklingHard
A column of length L made of steel is fixed at the base and free at the top. Find its slenderness and the critical buckling stress σcr from Euler’s formula.
L = 2.5 mE = 200 GPa (steel)d = 50 mm
σcr = MPa
11.Centroid & second moment of areaMedium
A 150 mm × 240 mm plate has a circular hole of diameter 40 mm on its vertical centre line, with its centre 156 mm above the bottom. Find the second moment of area Ix about the horizontal axis through the centroid.
b = 150 mmh = 240 mmd = 40 mmhole centre: y = 156 mm
Ix = × 10⁶ mm⁴
12.Centroid & second moment of areaHard
The T-section is used as a beam with the flange on top and carries a sagging bending moment of 15 kN·m. Find the size of the bending stress σtop at the top edge.
A 7 m thick overconsolidated clay layer has Cc = 0.45, Cr = 0.05 and e₀ = 0.9. At its mid-depth the effective vertical stress is 70 kPa and the preconsolidation pressure is 160 kPa. A new building adds 110 kPa of vertical stress at mid-depth. Find the primary consolidation settlement S in mm.
In a laboratory oedometer test, a clay specimen 20 mm thick, drained at the top and bottom, reaches 50% consolidation in 8 min. In the field the same clay forms a layer 5.5 m thick. It lies on impervious rock, with sand above it, so water drains out only at the top. How many days t does the field layer take to reach 50% consolidation?
A vertical rectangular gate 1 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of water, with its top edge 1 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
A vertical rectangular gate 2 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of water, with its top edge 2.5 m below the surface. Find the depth ycp of the centre of pressure below the surface.
Water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) flows at 2.8 m/s through a horizontal pipe, 300 m long, with an inside diameter of 250 mm. Use the Darcy friction factor f = 0.015 and g = 9.81 m/s². Find the pressure drop Δp over the pipe in kPa.
Two open reservoirs are joined by a pipe 150 m long with an inside diameter of 150 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.025. The minor losses are a square-edged entrance (K = 0.5), 2 bends (K = 0.3 each), a valve (K = 5) and the exit into the lower reservoir (K = 1.0). Use g = 9.81 m/s². What difference in water level Δz between the reservoirs gives a flow rate of 30 L/s?
A concrete storm sewer with an inside diameter of 900 mm flows just full (as an open channel, not under pressure). Manning n = 0.013 and the slope is S = 0.005. Find the flow rate Q in m³/s.
D = 900 mmn = 0.013S = 0.005
Q = m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)Hard
A rectangular grass-lined earth channel 5 m wide must carry 6.4 m³/s in uniform flow at a depth of 1.7 m. Manning n = 0.03. Find the required bed slope S (in m/m).
Q = 6.4 m³/sb = 5 my = 1.7 mn = 0.03
S = m/m
23.Pumps & pump powerMedium
A pump delivers 25 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) against a head of 34 m. The pump efficiency is 78% and the electric motor driving it has an efficiency of 90%. Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the electrical power Pel the motor draws, in kW.
A pump moves 50 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) from an open lower reservoir to an upper tank whose water surface is 5 m higher. The pipe is 300 m long with an inside diameter of 250 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.025; the minor-loss coefficients add up to ΣK = 8 (entrance and exit included). Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the head H the pump must add.
You need €15 000 in 2 years. An account pays 3.6% per year, compounded monthly. How much must you deposit today? Find the present value PV.
FV = €15 0003.6% / 12n = 2
PV = €
26.Time value of moneyHard
You save €250 at the end of every month for 26 years. The account pays 2.4% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.
A = €2502.4% / 12N = 312
FV = €
27.NPV & IRRMedium
An investment of €20 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 4: €6 000, €4 000, €8 000, €6 000. The cost of capital is 10%. Find the net present value NPV.
A project costs €50 000 and returns €34 000, €21 500, €28 000 at the end of years 1 to 3. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.
CF0 = −50 000CF1 = 34 000CF2 = 21 500CF3 = 28 000
IRR = %
29.Normal distributionMedium
The delivery times are normally distributed with mean 32 min and standard deviation 6 min. What fraction lies between 30.5 and 38.3 min? Give P as a decimal.
μ = 32σ = 6x1 = 30.5x2 = 38.3
P =
30.Normal distributionHard
The mass X of a product from line 1 and Y from line 2 are independent and normal: X has mean 500 g and standard deviation 8 g, Y has mean 490 g and standard deviation 6 g. Find the probability P that X is greater than Y. Round z to two decimals.
μX = 500 g, σX = 8 gμY = 490 g, σY = 6 g
P =
3Solutions
1.Beam support reactions
Answer: RB = 40.63 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
ΣMA = 0: RB·8 = 45·1 + 40·7
RB = 325/8 = 40.63 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 85 − 40.63 = 44.38 kN
Answer
RB = 40.63 kN
2.Beam support reactions
Answer: RA = 10 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 5·2 = 10 kN, acting at x̄ = 1 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·4 = 10·3 + 5·2·1
RB = 40/4 = 10 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 20 − 10 = 10 kN
Answer
RA = 10 kN
3.Truss: method of joints
Answer: member CG
Zero-force members: at a joint, the forces must balance in every direction. If a joint has no load and no support, and two of its three members are in line, then the balance across that line involves only the third member, so its force is zero. If only two members meet at an unloaded joint and they are not in line, both are zero.
Joint G
FG and GH lie on one straight line and the joint carries no load. Balancing forces across that line leaves only CG.
ΣF⊥ = 0 → FCG = 0
Check with the method of joints
Solving all joints gives these member forces (T = tension, C = compression).
Method of joints: every pin of a truss is in equilibrium, so ΣFx = 0 and ΣFy = 0 at each joint. Start at a joint with at most two unknown member forces. A negative result means the member is in compression.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole truss. Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive.
ΣMA = 0: Cy·4 = 40·1 − 20·4 → Cy = −10 kN
ΣFy = 0: Ay = 40 − −10 = 50 kN
ΣFx = 0: Ax = 20 kN
Joint C
The roller gives only a vertical reaction, so joint C has just two unknown member forces. Assume both in tension.
Largest bending moment: M changes slope wherever the shear force changes, so its peaks sit where the shear force crosses zero: under a point load, inside a distributed load, or over a support of an overhang. At a fixed support of a cantilever the moment is largest at the wall. Compare the size of M at those places, sagging or hogging.
Support reactions
Take moments about one support, then use the vertical force balance.
R1 = 73.67 kN, R2 = 80.33 kN
Bending moment at every mark
Sum the moments of all forces on one side of the cut. Sagging is positive, hogging negative.
MA = 0, MB = 123.3, MC = 198.7, MD = 226 kN·m, ME = 205.3, MF = 136.7, MG = 0
Answer
Mark D: MD = 226 kN·m
6.Shear force & bending moment
Answer: Mx = 54 kN·m
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 3·10 = 30 kN, acting at x̄ = 5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·10 = 30·1 + 3·10·5
RB = 180/10 = 18 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 60 − 18 = 42 kN
Cut at x = 4 m and keep the left part
Only forces left of the cut appear. A UDL portion acts as one force at the middle of that portion.
M = RA·x − (each load left of the cut × its distance to the cut)
Mx = 42·4 − 30·(4 − 1) − 3·4·2 = 54 kN·m
Answer
Mx = 54 kN·m
7.Beam deflection
Answer: δmax = 10.2 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
w = 5 N/mm, L = 5000 mm
EI = 3.99 × 10¹² N·mm²
Deflection
δmax = 5wL⁴/(384EI) = 5·5·5000⁴/(384·3.99 × 10¹²) = 10.2 mm
Answer
δmax = 10.2 mm
8.Beam deflection
Answer: δmax = 20.92 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
P = 8000 N, w = 12 N/mm, L = 6000 mm, EI = 1.14 × 10¹³ N·mm²
Each load on its own
δP = PL³/(48EI) = 8000·6000³/(48·1.14 × 10¹³) = 3.158 mm
δw = 5wL⁴/(384EI) = 5·12·6000⁴/(384·1.14 × 10¹³) = 17.76 mm
Add them
δmax = 3.158 + 17.76 = 20.92 mm
Answer
δmax = 20.92 mm
9.Column buckling
Answer: Pcr = 16.82 kN
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Smallest second moment of area
A round section has the same I about every axis.
I = πd⁴/64 = π·50⁴/64 = 306796 mm⁴
Radius of gyration and slenderness
A = 1963 mm²
r = √(I/A) = √(306796/1963) = 12.5 mm
KL = 2·2500 = 5000 mm
KL/r = 5000/12.5 = 400
Critical stress
σcr = π²E/(KL/r)² = π²·200000/400² = 12.34 MPa
Answer
σcr = 12.34 MPa
11.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: Ix = 171 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Sections with holes: treat a hole as a negative area. The centroid is ȳ = (A₁y₁ − A₂y₂)/(A₁ − A₂), with A₁, y₁ for the full plate and A₂, y₂ for the hole. For the second moment of area about the centroidal axis, use the parallel-axis theorem for each part and subtract the hole: I = (Ic1 + A₁d₁²) − (Ic2 + A₂d₂²), where d is the distance from each part's own centroid to the axis through ȳ. A rectangle has Ic = bh³/12 and a circle Ic = πd⁴/64.
Centroid
ȳ = (36000·120 − 1257·156)/(36000 − 1257) = 118.7 mm
Full plate about ȳ
150·240³/12 + 36000·1.302² = 172.9 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Hole about ȳ
π·40⁴/64 + 1257·37.3² = 1.874 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Subtract
Ix = 171 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Answer
Ix = 171 × 10⁶ mm⁴
12.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: σtop = 25.65 MPa
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Split into two rectangles
Measure every y from the bottom edge.
flange: Af = 140·30 = 4200 mm², yf = 240 + 30/2 = 255 mm
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Pore water pressure
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·3 = 29.43 kPa
Answer
u = 29.43 kPa
14.Effective stress in soil
Answer: σ′ = 86.29 kPa
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
σ = γd·2 + γsat,sand·3 + γsat,clay·2.5
σ = 17·2 + 20·3 + 18.5·2.5 = 140.3 kPa
Pore water pressure
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·5.5 = 53.96 kPa
Effective stress
σ′ = σ − u = 140.3 − 53.96 = 86.29 kPa
Answer
σ′ = 86.29 kPa
15.Consolidation settlement
Answer: S = 150.9 mm
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Compare with the preconsolidation pressure
σ′f = 70 + 110 = 180 kPa > 160 kPa
Settlement
Recompression up to σ′p, virgin compression beyond it.
S = 0.05·7/(1 + 0.9)·log₁₀(160/70) + 0.45·7/(1 + 0.9)·log₁₀(180/160)
S = 66.14 + 84.81 = 150.9 mm
Answer
S = 150.9 mm
16.Consolidation settlement
Answer: t = 1681 days
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Drainage paths
Hdr,lab = 20/2 = 10 mm = 0.01 m
Hdr,field = 5.5 m
Scale the time
t = Tv·Hdr²/cv with the same T_v and cv in the lab and the field.
tfield = 8·(5.5/0.01)² = 2.42 × 10⁶ min
tfield = 2.42 × 10⁶/1440 = 1681 days
Answer
t = 1681 days
17.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 25.75 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 1 + 1.5/2 = 1.75 m
A = H·b = 1.5·1 = 1.5 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1000·9.81·1.75·1.5 = 25.75 kN
Answer
F = 25.75 kN
18.Hydrostatic force
Answer: ycp = 3.028 m
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 2.5 + 1/2 = 3 m
A = H·b = 1·2 = 2 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1000·9.81·3·2 = 58.86 kN
Centre of pressure
Pressure grows with depth, so the resultant acts below the centroid.
Ic = b·H³/12 = 2·1³/12 = 0.1667 m⁴
ycp = yc + Ic/(yc·A) = 3 + 0.1667/(3·2) = 3.028 m
Answer
ycp = 3.028 m
19.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: Δp = 70.56 kPa
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Head loss
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g) = 0.015·(300/0.25)·2.8²/(2·9.81) = 7.193 m
Pressure drop
The pipe is horizontal and the velocity does not change, so the energy equation reduces to Δp = ρ·g·hf.
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Velocity
V = Q/A = 0.03/0.01767 = 1.698 m/s
V²/(2g) = 0.1469 m
Loss coefficients
f·L/D = 0.025·150/0.15 = 25
ΣK = 0.5 + 2·0.3 + 5 + 1.0 = 7.1
Total head loss
hf = 25·0.1469 = 3.672 m
hm = 7.1·0.1469 = 1.043 m
Δz = hf + hm = 4.715 m
Answer
Δz = 4.715 m
21.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: Q = 1.28 m³/s
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Geometry
A = 0.6362 m², R = D/4 = 0.225 m
Velocity
V = (1/0.013)·0.2252/3·0.0051/2 = 2.012 m/s
Flow rate
Q = A·V = 0.6362·2.012 = 1.28 m³/s
Answer
Q = 1.28 m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: S = 0.0005022 m/m
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = 1000·9.81·0.025·34 = 8.338 kW
Shaft power
Pshaft = 8.338/0.78 = 10.69 kW
Electrical power
Pel = 10.69/0.9 = 11.88 kW
Answer
Pel = 11.88 kW
24.Pumps & pump power
Answer: H = 7.009 m
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Both surfaces are open and practically at rest, so pressure and velocity terms drop out.
H = Δz + hL = 5 + 2.009 = 7.009 m
Answer
H = 7.009 m
25.Time value of money
Answer: PV = 13959 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Rate and number of periods
i = 0.036000000000000004/12 = 0.003
N = 12·2 = 24
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)N = 15 000/1.075 = €13 959.47
Answer
PV = €13 959.47
26.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 108152 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
You paid in €78 000 yourself; the rest is interest.
27.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = −1131 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of each cash flow
CF0 = −20 000
CF1/(1 + 0.1)1 = 6 000/1.1 = 5 454.55
CF2/(1 + 0.1)2 = 4 000/1.21 = 3 305.79
CF3/(1 + 0.1)3 = 8 000/1.331 = 6 010.52
CF4/(1 + 0.1)4 = 6 000/1.464 = 4 098.08
Add them up
NPV = €−1 131.07
Answer
NPV = €−1 131.07
NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.
28.NPV & IRR
Answer: IRR = 32.41 %
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Bracket the IRR
NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.
NPV(30%) = 1 620.39
NPV(35%) = −1 637.45
Narrow down
Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.
Normal distribution: convert a value x to a z-score, z = (x − μ)/σ, which counts standard deviations from the mean. A z-table (or Φ(z)) gives the area to the left of z, which is P(X < x). The area to the right is 1 − Φ(z), and the area between two values is the difference of their two areas.
z-scores
z₁ = (30.5 − 32)/6 = −0.25
z₂ = (38.3 − 32)/6 = 1.05
Area between
P = Φ(1.05) − Φ(−0.25) = 0.8531 − 0.4013 = 0.4518
Answer
P = 0.4518
30.Normal distribution
Answer: P = 0.8413
Sums and differences of normal variables: if X and Y are independent and normal, X + Y and X − Y are normal too. Means add or subtract: E(X ± Y) = μX ± μY. Variances always add, also for a difference: Var(X ± Y) = σX² + σY², so σ = √(σX² + σY²). Standard deviations never add directly. The total of n independent items with the same distribution has mean n·μ and standard deviation σ·√n. Then standardise as usual: z = (x − mean)/σ and read Φ(z).
Distribution of the difference
μ = 500 − 490 = 10 g, σ = 10 g
Standardise
z = (0 − 10)/10 = −1
Probability
P = 1 − Φ(−1) = 0.8413
Answer
P = 0.8413
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