laminar below Re ≈ 2000, turbulent above Re ≈ 4000
Mean velocity
V = Q/A, A = π·D²/4
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g)
Minor losses
hm = ΣK·V²/(2g)
Typical K values
entrance 0.5, exit 1.0, 90° bend ≈ 0.3
Pressure drop
Δp = ρ·g·hf
Two open reservoirs
Δz = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Free outlet
H = (1 + f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Open-channel flow (Manning)
Manning equation
V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2
Flow rate
Q = A·V
Hydraulic radius
R = A/P (P = wetted perimeter, free surface excluded)
Rectangle
A = b·y, P = b + 2y
Trapezoid (side slope z:1)
A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²)
Circular pipe, full or half full
R = D/4
Required slope
S = (n·Q/(A·R2/3))²
Pumps & pump power
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp
Shaft power
Pshaft = Ph/ηpump
Electrical power
Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor
Pump head
H = Δz + Δp/(ρ·g) + hL
System losses
hL = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Normal distribution
z-score
z = (x − μ)/σ
Below x
P(X < x) = Φ(z)
Above x
P(X > x) = 1 − Φ(z)
Between
Φ(z2) − Φ(z1)
Percentile
x = μ + z·σ
Method
Convert the value to a z-score: z = (x − μ)/σ.
Look up Φ(z), the area to the left of z.
For the area to the right use 1 − Φ(z); for an interval subtract the two left areas.
For a percentile, work backwards: find z for the area, then x = μ + z·σ.
2Practice problems
1.Beam support reactionsMedium
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RB.
L = 6 mP1 = 30 kN at 1 mP2 = 55 kN at 3 m
RB = kN
2.Beam support reactionsHard
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RB.
L = 5 mP = 35 kN at 3.5 mw = 12 kN/m from 2 to 4 m
RB = kN
3.Truss: method of jointsMedium
Exactly one member of this truss carries no force under these loads. Which is the zero-force member? Click it in the diagram.
D: 35 kN ↓F: 10 kN ↓G: 20 kN ↓
1member AB
2member BC
3member CD
4member DE
5member FG
6member GH
7member AF
8member HE
9member BF
10member CG
11member DH
12member FC
13member HC
4.Truss: method of jointsHard
Use the method of joints to find the force FAB in member AB. Give tension as positive and compression as negative.
span = 8 mheight = 2 mB is 3 m from Avertical load = 30 kNhorizontal load = 30 kN →
FAB = kN
5.Shear force & bending momentMedium
The simply supported beam carries a clockwise couple M0 = 25 kN·m at x = 1 m from A, and no other load. Find the bending moment Mx just to the left of the couple. Use sagging moments positive and upward shear on the left face positive.
L = 10 mM0 = 25 kN·m clockwise, at 1 m
Mx = kN·m
6.Shear force & bending momentHard
Find the bending moment Mx at the section x = 4.5 m from support A. Use sagging moments positive and upward shear on the left face positive.
L = 10 mP = 35 kN at 3 mw = 10 kN/m from 0 to 10 mx = 4.5 m
Mx = kN·m
7.Beam deflectionMedium
A simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole span. Find the maximum deflection δmax, at midspan.
w = 8 kN/mL = 5 mE = 70 GPa (aluminium)I = 120 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δmax = mm
8.Beam deflectionHard
A simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load w and a point load P at midspan. Using superposition, find the midspan deflection δmax.
P = 29 kNw = 4 kN/mL = 2.5 mE = 70 GPa (aluminium)I = 160 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δmax = mm
9.Column bucklingMedium
A column of length L made of steel is fixed at the base and pinned at the top. Using Euler’s formula, find its critical buckling load Pcr.
L = 5 mE = 200 GPa (steel)b × h = 40 × 100 mm
Pcr = kN
10.Column bucklingHard
A solid round column of length L made of steel is fixed at the base and pinned at the top. It must carry 40 kN with a factor of safety of 3 against buckling. Find the smallest diameter d.
P = 40 kNn = 3L = 2.5 mE = 200 GPa (steel)
d = mm
11.Centroid & second moment of areaMedium
Find the second moment of area Ix of the T-section about the horizontal axis x through its centroid.
bf = 160 mmtf = 20 mmtw = 12 mmhw = 220 mm
Ix = × 10⁶ mm⁴
12.Centroid & second moment of areaHard
A welded I-section has a top flange 130 × 20 mm, a web 290 mm high and 16 mm thick, and a bottom flange 270 × 14 mm (width × thickness). Find its second moment of area Ix about the horizontal axis x through its centroid.
top flange: 130 × 20 mmweb: 16 × 290 mmbottom flange: 270 × 14 mm
Ix = × 10⁶ mm⁴
13.Effective stress in soilMedium
For the soil profile shown, find the vertical effective stress σ′ at point X.
A 4 m thick overconsolidated clay layer has Cc = 0.5, Cr = 0.05 and e₀ = 1.1. At its mid-depth the effective vertical stress is 50 kPa and the preconsolidation pressure is 160 kPa. A new building adds 140 kPa of vertical stress at mid-depth. Find the primary consolidation settlement S in mm.
In a laboratory oedometer test, a clay specimen 19 mm thick, drained at the top and bottom, reaches 50% consolidation in 15 min. In the field the same clay forms a layer 9 m thick. It lies between two sand layers, so water drains out at the top and the bottom. How many days t does the field layer take to reach 50% consolidation?
A vertical rectangular gate 1.5 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of water, with its top edge 2 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
A vertical rectangular gate 3 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of water, with its top edge 1 m below the surface. Find the depth ycp of the centre of pressure below the surface.
Water flows at a mean velocity of 2.1 m/s through a pipe 500 m long with an inside diameter of 75 mm. Use the Darcy friction factor f = 0.02 and g = 9.81 m/s². Find the friction head loss hf.
Two open reservoirs are joined by a pipe 300 m long with an inside diameter of 250 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.025. The water surface of the upper reservoir is 39 m above that of the lower one. The minor losses are a square-edged entrance (K = 0.5), 2 bends (K = 0.3 each), a valve (K = 2) and the exit into the lower reservoir (K = 1.0). Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the flow rate Q in L/s.
A rectangular brickwork channel is 5.5 m wide. Water flows uniformly 2 m deep. Manning n = 0.015 and the bed slope is S = 0.0008. Find the flow rate Q in m³/s.
b = 5.5 my = 2 mn = 0.015S = 0.0008
Q = m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)Hard
A trapezoidal brickwork channel with a bottom width of 1.5 m and side slopes of 3:1 (horizontal:vertical) must carry 18 m³/s in uniform flow at a depth of 1.1 m. Manning n = 0.015. Find the required bed slope S (in m/m).
Q = 18 m³/sb = 1.5 my = 1.1 mz = 3n = 0.015
S = m/m
23.Pumps & pump powerMedium
In a test, a pump delivers 20 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) against a head of 18 m while its shaft takes 4.5 kW. Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the pump efficiency η in percent.
Q = 20 L/sH = 18 mPshaft = 4.5 kWg = 9.81 m/s²
η = %
24.Pumps & pump powerHard
A pump moves 75 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) from an open lower reservoir to an upper tank whose water surface is 17 m higher. The pipe is 100 m long with an inside diameter of 200 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.02; the minor-loss coefficients add up to ΣK = 5 (entrance and exit included). Use g = 9.81 m/s². The pump efficiency is 82%. Find the shaft power Pshaft in kW.
You invest €12 000 at a nominal rate of 2% per year, compounded monthly. Find the value FV of the investment after 2 years.
PV = €12 0002% / 12n = 2
FV = €
26.Time value of moneyHard
A mortgage of €150 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 20 years at 5.4% per year, compounded monthly. How much is still owed just after the payment at the end of year 4? Find the outstanding balance B.
P = €150 0005.4% / 12N = 240k = 48
B = €
27.NPV & IRRMedium
An investment of €20 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 3: €7 000, €10 000, €9 000. The cost of capital is 15%. Find the net present value NPV.
A project costs €20 000 and returns €12 000, €13 500 at the end of years 1 to 2. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.
CF0 = −20 000CF1 = 12 000CF2 = 13 500
IRR = %
29.Normal distributionMedium
The bag weights are normally distributed with mean 250 g and standard deviation 5 g. What fraction lies between 248.5 and 252.75 g? Give P as a decimal.
μ = 250σ = 5x1 = 248.5x2 = 252.75
P =
30.Normal distributionHard
Hole diameters D are normal with mean 25.05 mm and standard deviation 0.01 mm. Shaft diameters d are independent and normal with mean 25 mm and standard deviation 0.02 mm. A randomly chosen shaft fits when D − d > 0. Find the probability P that it fits. Round z to two decimals.
hole: μ = 25.05 mm, σ = 0.01 mmshaft: μ = 25 mm, σ = 0.02 mm
P =
3Solutions
1.Beam support reactions
Answer: RB = 32.5 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
ΣMA = 0: RB·6 = 30·1 + 55·3
RB = 195/6 = 32.5 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 85 − 32.5 = 52.5 kN
Answer
RB = 32.5 kN
2.Beam support reactions
Answer: RB = 38.9 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 12·2 = 24 kN, acting at x̄ = 3 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·5 = 35·3.5 + 12·2·3
RB = 194.5/5 = 38.9 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 59 − 38.9 = 20.1 kN
Answer
RB = 38.9 kN
3.Truss: method of joints
Answer: member BF
Zero-force members: at a joint, the forces must balance in every direction. If a joint has no load and no support, and two of its three members are in line, then the balance across that line involves only the third member, so its force is zero. If only two members meet at an unloaded joint and they are not in line, both are zero.
Joint B
AB and BC lie on one straight line and the joint carries no load. Balancing forces across that line leaves only BF.
ΣF⊥ = 0 → FBF = 0
Check with the method of joints
Solving all joints gives these member forces (T = tension, C = compression).
Method of joints: every pin of a truss is in equilibrium, so ΣFx = 0 and ΣFy = 0 at each joint. Start at a joint with at most two unknown member forces. A negative result means the member is in compression.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole truss. Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive.
ΣMA = 0: Cy·8 = 30·3 + 30·2 → Cy = 18.75 kN
ΣFy = 0: Ay = 30 − 18.75 = 11.25 kN
ΣFx = 0: Ax = −30 kN
Joint A
Assume every member is in tension (pulling away from the joint). Only AB has a vertical component at A.
sin α = 2/3.606 = 0.5547
ΣFy = 0: Ay + FAB·sin α = 0
FAB = −11.25/0.5547 = −20.28 kN
Answer
FAB = −20.28 kN (compression)
5.Shear force & bending moment
Answer: Mx = −2.5 kN·m
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut. An applied couple makes the bending moment diagram jump by the size of the couple.
Support reactions
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive: RB·L − M0 = 0. Vertical balance: RA + RB = 0.
RB = M0/L = 25/10 = 2.5 kN (upward)
RA = −RB = −2.5 kN (downward)
Cut just left of the couple
The left part contains only RA.
Mx = RA·a = −2.5·1 = −2.5 kN·m
Answer
Mx = −2.5 kN·m
6.Shear force & bending moment
Answer: Mx = 181.5 kN·m
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 10·10 = 100 kN, acting at x̄ = 5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·10 = 35·3 + 10·10·5
RB = 605/10 = 60.5 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 135 − 60.5 = 74.5 kN
Cut at x = 4.5 m and keep the left part
Only forces left of the cut appear. A UDL portion acts as one force at the middle of that portion.
M = RA·x − (each load left of the cut × its distance to the cut)
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
w = 8 N/mm, L = 5000 mm
EI = 8.4 × 10¹² N·mm²
Deflection
δmax = 5wL⁴/(384EI) = 5·8·5000⁴/(384·8.4 × 10¹²) = 7.75 mm
Answer
δmax = 7.75 mm
8.Beam deflection
Answer: δmax = 1.025 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
P = 29000 N, w = 4 N/mm, L = 2500 mm, EI = 1.12 × 10¹³ N·mm²
Each load on its own
δP = PL³/(48EI) = 29000·2500³/(48·1.12 × 10¹³) = 0.8429 mm
δw = 5wL⁴/(384EI) = 5·4·2500⁴/(384·1.12 × 10¹³) = 0.1817 mm
Add them
δmax = 0.8429 + 0.1817 = 1.025 mm
Answer
δmax = 1.025 mm
9.Column buckling
Answer: Pcr = 85.94 kN
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Smallest second moment of area
A rectangle buckles about its weak axis, using the smaller dimension cubed.
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Required critical load
Pcr = n·P = 3·40000 = 120000 N
KL = 0.7·2500 = 1750 mm
Solve for the diameter
d = (64·n·P·(KL)²/(π³E))^(1/4) = (64·120000·1750²/(π³·200000))^(1/4) = 44.13 mm
Answer
d = 44.13 mm
Check: the slenderness KL/r is 158.6, so the column is slender and Euler applies.
11.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: Ix = 31.59 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Split into two rectangles
Measure every y from the bottom edge.
flange: Af = 160·20 = 3200 mm², yf = 220 + 20/2 = 230 mm
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Split into three rectangles
Measure every y from the bottom edge.
top flange: A = 2600 mm², y = 314 mm
web: A = 4640 mm², y = 159 mm
bottom flange: A = 3780 mm², y = 7 mm
Centroid
ȳ = (2600·314 + 4640·159 + 3780·7)/11020 = 143.4 mm
Parallel-axis theorem
top flange: 130·20³/12 + 2600·170.6² = 7.573 × 10⁷ mm⁴
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·5 = 49.05 kPa
Effective stress
σ′ = σ − u = 145.5 − 49.05 = 96.45 kPa
Answer
σ′ = 96.45 kPa
14.Effective stress in soil
Answer: u = 83.39 kPa
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Pore water pressure
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·8.5 = 83.39 kPa
Answer
u = 83.39 kPa
15.Consolidation settlement
Answer: S = 119.2 mm
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Compare with the preconsolidation pressure
σ′f = 50 + 140 = 190 kPa > 160 kPa
Settlement
Recompression up to σ′p, virgin compression beyond it.
S = 0.05·4/(1 + 1.1)·log₁₀(160/50) + 0.5·4/(1 + 1.1)·log₁₀(190/160)
S = 48.11 + 71.08 = 119.2 mm
Answer
S = 119.2 mm
16.Consolidation settlement
Answer: t = 2337 days
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Drainage paths
Hdr,lab = 19/2 = 9.5 mm = 0.0095 m
Hdr,field = 9/2 = 4.5 m
Scale the time
t = Tv·Hdr²/cv with the same T_v and cv in the lab and the field.
tfield = 15·(4.5/0.0095)² = 3.366 × 10⁶ min
tfield = 3.366 × 10⁶/1440 = 2337 days
Answer
t = 2337 days
17.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 154.5 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 2 + 3/2 = 3.5 m
A = H·b = 3·1.5 = 4.5 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1000·9.81·3.5·4.5 = 154.5 kN
Answer
F = 154.5 kN
18.Hydrostatic force
Answer: ycp = 1.857 m
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 1 + 1.5/2 = 1.75 m
A = H·b = 1.5·3 = 4.5 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1000·9.81·1.75·4.5 = 77.25 kN
Centre of pressure
Pressure grows with depth, so the resultant acts below the centroid.
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Velocity head
V²/(2g) = 2.1²/(2·9.81) = 0.2248 m
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g) = 0.02·(500/0.075)·2.1²/(2·9.81) = 29.97 m
Answer
hf = 29.97 m
20.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: Q = 232.5 L/s
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Loss coefficients
f·L/D = 0.025·300/0.25 = 30
ΣK = 0.5 + 2·0.3 + 2 + 1.0 = 4.1
Energy equation
Both surfaces are open to the air and practically at rest, so all of Δz is lost in the pipe.
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Geometry
A = b·y = 5.5·2 = 11 m²
P = b + 2y = 5.5 + 2·2 = 9.5 m
R = A/P = 1.158 m
Velocity
V = (1/0.015)·1.1582/3·0.00081/2 = 2.079 m/s
Flow rate
Q = A·V = 11·2.079 = 22.87 m³/s
Answer
Q = 22.87 m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: S = 0.0049 m/m
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Geometry
A = (b + z·y)·y = (1.5 + 3·1.1)·1.1 = 5.28 m²
P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²) = 1.5 + 2·1.1·√(1 + 3²) = 8.457 m
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = 1000·9.81·0.02·18 = 3.532 kW
Efficiency
η = Ph/Pshaft = 3.532/4.5 = 78.48%
Answer
η = 78.48%
24.Pumps & pump power
Answer: Pshaft = 19.16 kW
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Whatever is still owed must be exactly paid off by the remaining payments.
N − k = 240 − 48 = 192
B = 1023·(1 − (1 + 0.0045)−192)/0.0045 = €131 381.07
Answer
B = €131 381.07
27.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = −434 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of each cash flow
CF0 = −20 000
CF1/(1 + 0.15)1 = 7 000/1.15 = 6 086.96
CF2/(1 + 0.15)2 = 10 000/1.322 = 7 561.44
CF3/(1 + 0.15)3 = 9 000/1.521 = 5 917.65
Add them up
NPV = €−433.96
Answer
NPV = €−433.96
NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.
28.NPV & IRR
Answer: IRR = 17.46 %
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Bracket the IRR
NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.
NPV(15%) = 642.72
NPV(20%) = −625.00
Narrow down
Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.
IRR ≈ 15 + 5·642.72/(642.72 − (−625.00)) = 17.53%
exact: NPV(17.46%) = 0 → IRR = 17.46%
Answer
IRR = 17.46%
29.Normal distribution
Answer: P = 0.3268
Normal distribution: convert a value x to a z-score, z = (x − μ)/σ, which counts standard deviations from the mean. A z-table (or Φ(z)) gives the area to the left of z, which is P(X < x). The area to the right is 1 − Φ(z), and the area between two values is the difference of their two areas.
z-scores
z₁ = (248.5 − 250)/5 = −0.3
z₂ = (252.75 − 250)/5 = 0.55
Area between
P = Φ(0.55) − Φ(−0.3) = 0.7088 − 0.3821 = 0.3268
Answer
P = 0.3268
30.Normal distribution
Answer: P = 0.9875
Sums and differences of normal variables: if X and Y are independent and normal, X + Y and X − Y are normal too. Means add or subtract: E(X ± Y) = μX ± μY. Variances always add, also for a difference: Var(X ± Y) = σX² + σY², so σ = √(σX² + σY²). Standard deviations never add directly. The total of n independent items with the same distribution has mean n·μ and standard deviation σ·√n. Then standardise as usual: z = (x − mean)/σ and read Φ(z).