laminar below Re ≈ 2000, turbulent above Re ≈ 4000
Mean velocity
V = Q/A, A = π·D²/4
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g)
Minor losses
hm = ΣK·V²/(2g)
Typical K values
entrance 0.5, exit 1.0, 90° bend ≈ 0.3
Pressure drop
Δp = ρ·g·hf
Two open reservoirs
Δz = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Free outlet
H = (1 + f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Open-channel flow (Manning)
Manning equation
V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2
Flow rate
Q = A·V
Hydraulic radius
R = A/P (P = wetted perimeter, free surface excluded)
Rectangle
A = b·y, P = b + 2y
Trapezoid (side slope z:1)
A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²)
Circular pipe, full or half full
R = D/4
Required slope
S = (n·Q/(A·R2/3))²
Pumps & pump power
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp
Shaft power
Pshaft = Ph/ηpump
Electrical power
Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor
Pump head
H = Δz + Δp/(ρ·g) + hL
System losses
hL = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Normal distribution
z-score
z = (x − μ)/σ
Below x
P(X < x) = Φ(z)
Above x
P(X > x) = 1 − Φ(z)
Between
Φ(z2) − Φ(z1)
Percentile
x = μ + z·σ
Method
Convert the value to a z-score: z = (x − μ)/σ.
Look up Φ(z), the area to the left of z.
For the area to the right use 1 − Φ(z); for an interval subtract the two left areas.
For a percentile, work backwards: find z for the area, then x = μ + z·σ.
2Practice problems
1.Beam support reactionsMedium
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RB.
L = 6 mP1 = 15 kN at 2 mP2 = 50 kN at 3.5 m
RB = kN
2.Beam support reactionsHard
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RA.
L = 8 mP = 30 kN at 7 mw = 10 kN/m from 2 to 8 m
RA = kN
3.Truss: method of jointsMedium
Exactly one member of this truss carries no force under these loads. Which is the zero-force member? Click it in the diagram.
D: 15 kN ↓
1member AB
2member BC
3member CD
4member DE
5member FG
6member GH
7member AF
8member HE
9member BF
10member CG
11member DH
12member BG
13member DG
4.Truss: method of jointsHard
Use the method of joints to find the force FBC in member BC. Give tension as positive and compression as negative.
span = 6 mheight = 4 mB is 4 m from Avertical load = 25 kNhorizontal load = 5 kN →
FBC = kN
5.Shear force & bending momentMedium
The simply supported beam carries a clockwise couple M0 = 60 kN·m at x = 1.5 m from A, and no other load. Find the bending moment Mx just to the right of the couple. Use sagging moments positive and upward shear on the left face positive.
L = 6 mM0 = 60 kN·m clockwise, at 1.5 m
Mx = kN·m
6.Shear force & bending momentHard
Find the bending moment Mx at the section x = 2 m from support A. Use sagging moments positive and upward shear on the left face positive.
L = 10 mP = 40 kN at 2 mw = 5 kN/m from 0 to 10 mx = 2 m
Mx = kN·m
7.Beam deflectionMedium
A simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole span. Find the maximum deflection δmax, at midspan.
w = 12 kN/mL = 8 mE = 200 GPa (steel)I = 84 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δmax = mm
8.Beam deflectionHard
A simply supported beam carries a point load P at b = 1.5 m from support B. Find the maximum deflection δmax of the beam.
P = 15 kNb = 1.5 mL = 8 mE = 70 GPa (aluminium)I = 160 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δmax = mm
9.Column bucklingMedium
A column of length L made of aluminium is fixed at both ends. Using Euler’s formula, find its critical buckling load Pcr.
L = 4 mE = 70 GPa (aluminium)d = 25 mm
Pcr = kN
10.Column bucklingHard
A solid round column of length L made of steel is fixed at the base and free at the top. It must carry 60 kN with a factor of safety of 2.5 against buckling. Find the smallest diameter d.
P = 60 kNn = 2.5L = 3 mE = 200 GPa (steel)
d = mm
11.Centroid & second moment of areaMedium
A symmetric I-section has flanges 190 mm wide and 20 mm thick, an overall depth of 320 mm and a web 14 mm thick. Find its elastic section modulus Sx for bending about the horizontal centroidal axis x.
B = 190 mmH = 320 mmtf = 20 mmtw = 14 mm
Sx = × 10³ mm³
12.Centroid & second moment of areaHard
A cast-iron beam has the T-section shown, with the flange on top. The allowable stresses are 50 MPa in tension and 120 MPa in compression. Find the largest sagging bending moment Mallow the beam can carry.
A 4.5 m thick overconsolidated clay layer has Cc = 0.35, Cr = 0.02 and e₀ = 0.6. At its mid-depth the effective vertical stress is 50 kPa and the overconsolidation ratio is OCR = 2.5. A new building adds 50 kPa of vertical stress at mid-depth. Find the primary consolidation settlement S in mm.
A clay layer 3 m thick has a coefficient of consolidation cv = 2.5 m²/year. It lies on impervious rock, with sand above it, so water drains out only at the top. For 50% average consolidation the time factor is Tv = 0.197. How many years t does the layer take to reach 50% consolidation?
A vertical rectangular gate 1 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of water, with its top edge 1 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
d = 1 mH = 3 mb = 1 mρ = 1000 kg/m³g = 9.81 m/s²
F = kN
18.Hydrostatic forceHard
A vertical rectangular gate 1.5 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of oil, with its top edge 1 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
d = 1 mH = 2 mb = 1.5 mρ = 880 kg/m³g = 9.81 m/s²
F = kN
19.Pipe friction & head lossMedium
Water flows at a mean velocity of 2.3 m/s through a pipe 1000 m long with an inside diameter of 150 mm. Use the Darcy friction factor f = 0.022 and g = 9.81 m/s². Find the friction head loss hf.
Two open reservoirs are joined by a pipe 150 m long with an inside diameter of 250 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.015. The minor losses are a square-edged entrance (K = 0.5), 2 bends (K = 0.3 each), a valve (K = 10) and the exit into the lower reservoir (K = 1.0). Use g = 9.81 m/s². What difference in water level Δz between the reservoirs gives a flow rate of 60 L/s?
A concrete storm sewer with an inside diameter of 450 mm flows just full (as an open channel, not under pressure). Manning n = 0.013 and the slope is S = 0.0015. Find the flow rate Q in m³/s.
D = 450 mmn = 0.013S = 0.0015
Q = m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)Hard
A trapezoidal grass-lined earth channel with a bottom width of 5.5 m and side slopes of 1.5:1 (horizontal:vertical) must carry 74 m³/s in uniform flow at a depth of 2.5 m. Manning n = 0.03. Find the required bed slope S (in m/m).
Q = 74 m³/sb = 5.5 my = 2.5 mz = 1.5n = 0.03
S = m/m
23.Pumps & pump powerMedium
In a test, a pump delivers 30 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) against a head of 68 m while its shaft takes 30.8 kW. Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the pump efficiency η in percent.
Q = 30 L/sH = 68 mPshaft = 30.8 kWg = 9.81 m/s²
η = %
24.Pumps & pump powerHard
A pump moves 75 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) from an open lower reservoir to an upper tank whose water surface is 13 m higher. The pipe is 100 m long with an inside diameter of 200 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.025; the minor-loss coefficients add up to ΣK = 5 (entrance and exit included). Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the head H the pump must add.
You need €20 000 in 9 years. An account pays 2% per year, compounded monthly. How much must you deposit today? Find the present value PV.
FV = €20 0002% / 12n = 9
PV = €
26.Time value of moneyHard
You save €500 at the end of every month for 6 years. The account pays 2.4% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.
A = €5002.4% / 12N = 72
FV = €
27.NPV & IRRMedium
A machine costs €20 000 today, lasts 5 years and costs €5 000 per year to run (paid at the end of each year). The cost of capital is 5%. Find its equivalent annual cost EAC.
C0 = €20 000M = €5 000n = 5r = 5%
EAC = €
28.NPV & IRRHard
A project costs €50 000 today. Its cash flow is €11 500 at the end of year 1 and grows by 2% per year until the last cash flow at the end of year 4. The cost of capital is 10%. Find the net present value NPV.
C0 = €50 000CF1 = €11 500g = 2%n = 4r = 10%
NPV = €
29.Normal distributionMedium
Drag z so that the shaded area under the standard normal curve, to the right of z, is 0.0735. Find z to two decimals.
A = 0.0735
z =
30.Normal distributionHard
The IQ scores are normally distributed with mean 100 points and standard deviation 15 points. Drag the cut-off so the shaded top 85% is to the right of it. Find the cut-off x.
μ = 100 pointsσ = 15 points85%
x = points
3Solutions
1.Beam support reactions
Answer: RB = 34.17 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
ΣMA = 0: RB·6 = 15·2 + 50·3.5
RB = 205/6 = 34.17 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 65 − 34.17 = 30.83 kN
Answer
RB = 34.17 kN
2.Beam support reactions
Answer: RA = 26.25 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 10·6 = 60 kN, acting at x̄ = 5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·8 = 30·7 + 10·6·5
RB = 510/8 = 63.75 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 90 − 63.75 = 26.25 kN
Answer
RA = 26.25 kN
3.Truss: method of joints
Answer: member CG
Zero-force members: at a joint, the forces must balance in every direction. If a joint has no load and no support, and two of its three members are in line, then the balance across that line involves only the third member, so its force is zero. If only two members meet at an unloaded joint and they are not in line, both are zero.
Joint C
BC and CD lie on one straight line and the joint carries no load. Balancing forces across that line leaves only CG.
ΣF⊥ = 0 → FCG = 0
Check with the method of joints
Solving all joints gives these member forces (T = tension, C = compression).
Method of joints: every pin of a truss is in equilibrium, so ΣFx = 0 and ΣFy = 0 at each joint. Start at a joint with at most two unknown member forces. A negative result means the member is in compression.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole truss. Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive.
ΣMA = 0: Cy·6 = 25·4 + 5·4 → Cy = 20 kN
ΣFy = 0: Ay = 25 − 20 = 5 kN
ΣFx = 0: Ax = −5 kN
Joint C
The roller gives only a vertical reaction, so joint C has just two unknown member forces. Assume both in tension.
sin γ = 4/4.472 = 0.8944, cos γ = 2/4.472 = 0.4472
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut. An applied couple makes the bending moment diagram jump by the size of the couple.
Support reactions
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive: RB·L − M0 = 0. Vertical balance: RA + RB = 0.
RB = M0/L = 60/6 = 10 kN (upward)
RA = −RB = −10 kN (downward)
Cut just right of the couple
The left part now contains RA and the couple.
Mx = RA·a + M0 = −10·1.5 + 60 = 45 kN·m
Answer
Mx = 45 kN·m
6.Shear force & bending moment
Answer: Mx = 104 kN·m
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 5·10 = 50 kN, acting at x̄ = 5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·10 = 40·2 + 5·10·5
RB = 330/10 = 33 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 90 − 33 = 57 kN
Cut at x = 2 m and keep the left part
Only forces left of the cut appear. A UDL portion acts as one force at the middle of that portion.
M = RA·x − (each load left of the cut × its distance to the cut)
Mx = 57·2 − 5·2·1 = 104 kN·m
Answer
Mx = 104 kN·m
7.Beam deflection
Answer: δmax = 38.1 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
w = 12 N/mm, L = 8000 mm
EI = 1.68 × 10¹³ N·mm²
Deflection
δmax = 5wL⁴/(384EI) = 5·12·8000⁴/(384·1.68 × 10¹³) = 38.1 mm
Answer
δmax = 38.1 mm
8.Beam deflection
Answer: δmax = 7.817 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
P = 15000 N, b = 1500 mm, L = 8000 mm
EI = 1.12 × 10¹³ N·mm²
Position of the maximum
Setting the slope in the longer segment to zero gives the position.
x = √((L² − b²)/3) = √((8000² − 1500²)/3) = 4537 mm
Maximum deflection
δmax = Pb(L² − b²)3/2/(9√3·EIL) = 7.817 mm
Answer
δmax = 7.817 mm
9.Column buckling
Answer: Pcr = 3.312 kN
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Required critical load
Pcr = n·P = 2.5·60000 = 150000 N
KL = 2·3000 = 6000 mm
Solve for the diameter
d = (64·n·P·(KL)²/(π³E))^(1/4) = (64·150000·6000²/(π³·200000))^(1/4) = 86.4 mm
Answer
d = 86.4 mm
Check: the slenderness KL/r is 277.8, so the column is slender and Euler applies.
11.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: Sx = 1230 × 10³ mm³
Second moment of area: for a rectangle about its own centroidal axis I = bh³/12, and about its base bh³/3 (parallel-axis theorem I = Ic + A·d²). A hole is handled by subtracting its I, as long as both parts share the same axis. The elastic section modulus is S = I/c, where c is the distance to the extreme fibre.
Outer rectangle minus the two side cut-outs
Both cut-outs together are (B − tw) wide and hw = H − 2tf high, and share the axis x.
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Sagging: the top is in compression, the bottom in tension.
top edge: M = 120·7.224 × 10⁶/38.02 = 22.8 kN·m
bottom edge: M = 50·7.224 × 10⁶/127 = 2.845 kN·m
Governing value
Mallow = min = 2.845 kN·m (bottom edge)
Answer
Mallow = 2.845 kN·m
13.Effective stress in soil
Answer: σ′ = 85.76 kPa
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·4 = 39.24 kPa
Effective stress
σ′ = σ − u = 125 − 39.24 = 85.76 kPa
Answer
σ′ = 85.76 kPa
14.Effective stress in soil
Answer: σ′ = 57.07 kPa
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
σ = γd·2 + γsat,sand·1 + γsat,clay·2
σ = 16·2 + 20.5·1 + 17·2 = 86.5 kPa
Pore water pressure
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·3 = 29.43 kPa
Effective stress
σ′ = σ − u = 86.5 − 29.43 = 57.07 kPa
Answer
σ′ = 57.07 kPa
15.Consolidation settlement
Answer: S = 16.93 mm
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Preconsolidation pressure
σ′p = OCR·σ′0 = 2.5·50 = 125 kPa
Compare with the preconsolidation pressure
σ′f = 50 + 50 = 100 kPa ≤ 125 kPa
Settlement
The clay stays on its recompression line.
S = Cr·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0) = 0.02·4.5/(1 + 0.6)·log₁₀(100/50) = 16.93 mm
Answer
S = 16.93 mm
16.Consolidation settlement
Answer: t = 0.7092 years
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Drainage path
Hdr = H = 3 m
Time
t = Tv·Hdr²/cv = 0.197·3²/2.5 = 0.7092 years
Answer
t = 0.7092 years
17.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 73.58 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 1 + 3/2 = 2.5 m
A = H·b = 3·1 = 3 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1000·9.81·2.5·3 = 73.58 kN
Answer
F = 73.58 kN
18.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 51.8 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 1 + 2/2 = 2 m
A = H·b = 2·1.5 = 3 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 880·9.81·2·3 = 51.8 kN
Answer
F = 51.8 kN
19.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: hf = 39.54 m
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Velocity head
V²/(2g) = 2.3²/(2·9.81) = 0.2696 m
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g) = 0.022·(1000/0.15)·2.3²/(2·9.81) = 39.54 m
Answer
hf = 39.54 m
20.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: Δz = 1.607 m
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Velocity
V = Q/A = 0.06/0.04909 = 1.222 m/s
V²/(2g) = 0.07615 m
Loss coefficients
f·L/D = 0.015·150/0.25 = 9
ΣK = 0.5 + 2·0.3 + 10 + 1.0 = 12.1
Total head loss
hf = 9·0.07615 = 0.6853 m
hm = 12.1·0.07615 = 0.9214 m
Δz = hf + hm = 1.607 m
Answer
Δz = 1.607 m
21.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: Q = 0.1104 m³/s
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Geometry
A = 0.159 m², R = D/4 = 0.1125 m
Velocity
V = (1/0.013)·0.11252/3·0.00151/2 = 0.6943 m/s
Flow rate
Q = A·V = 0.159·0.6943 = 0.1104 m³/s
Answer
Q = 0.1104 m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: S = 0.004952 m/m
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Geometry
A = (b + z·y)·y = (5.5 + 1.5·2.5)·2.5 = 23.13 m²
P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²) = 5.5 + 2·2.5·√(1 + 1.5²) = 14.51 m
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = 1000·9.81·0.03·68 = 20.01 kW
Efficiency
η = Ph/Pshaft = 20.01/30.8 = 64.98%
Answer
η = 64.98%
24.Pumps & pump power
Answer: H = 18.08 m
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Both surfaces are open and practically at rest, so pressure and velocity terms drop out.
H = Δz + hL = 13 + 5.083 = 18.08 m
Answer
H = 18.08 m
25.Time value of money
Answer: PV = 16708 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Rate and number of periods
i = 0.02/12 = 0.001667
N = 12·9 = 108
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)N = 20 000/1.197 = €16 707.91
Answer
PV = €16 707.91
26.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 38680 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
You paid in €36 000 yourself; the rest is interest.
27.NPV & IRR
Answer: EAC = 9619 €
Equivalent annual cost: spread the present value of all costs over the life as an equal yearly amount (an annuity): EAC = PV·r/(1 − (1 + r)⁻ⁿ). It lets you compare machines with different lives.
Annuity factor
(1 − 1.05−5)/0.05 = 4.329
Annualised purchase price
20 000/4.329 = 4 619.50
EAC
EAC = 4 619.50 + 5 000 = €9 619.50
Answer
EAC = €9 619.50
28.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = −12527 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of the growing annuity
((1.02)/(1.1))4 = 0.7393
PV = 11 500/(0.1 − 0.02)·(1 − 0.7393) = 37 473.36
NPV
NPV = 37 473.36 − 50 000 = −€12 526.64
Answer
NPV = −€12 526.64
NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.
29.Normal distribution
Answer: z = 1.45
From an area back to z: Φ(z) is the area to the left of z. For a left-tail area A, find z with Φ(z) = A in the table. A right-tail area A means Φ(z) = 1 − A. A central area A between −z and z leaves (1 − A)/2 in each tail, so Φ(z) = (1 + A)/2. For a value x, use x = μ + zσ.
Area to the left of z
Φ(z) = 1 − 0.0735 = 0.9265
Read the z-table backwards
Find 0.9265 inside the table and read off z.
z = 1.45
Answer
z = 1.45
30.Normal distribution
Answer: x = 84.4 points
From an area back to z: Φ(z) is the area to the left of z. For a left-tail area A, find z with Φ(z) = A in the table. A right-tail area A means Φ(z) = 1 − A. A central area A between −z and z leaves (1 − A)/2 in each tail, so Φ(z) = (1 + A)/2. For a value x, use x = μ + zσ.
Area to the left
Φ(z) = 0.15
z from the table
z ≈ −1.04
Back to the original units
x = 100 − 1.04·15 = 84.4 points
Answer
x = 84.4 points
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