laminar below Re ≈ 2000, turbulent above Re ≈ 4000
Mean velocity
V = Q/A, A = π·D²/4
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g)
Minor losses
hm = ΣK·V²/(2g)
Typical K values
entrance 0.5, exit 1.0, 90° bend ≈ 0.3
Pressure drop
Δp = ρ·g·hf
Two open reservoirs
Δz = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Free outlet
H = (1 + f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Open-channel flow (Manning)
Manning equation
V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2
Flow rate
Q = A·V
Hydraulic radius
R = A/P (P = wetted perimeter, free surface excluded)
Rectangle
A = b·y, P = b + 2y
Trapezoid (side slope z:1)
A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²)
Circular pipe, full or half full
R = D/4
Required slope
S = (n·Q/(A·R2/3))²
Pumps & pump power
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp
Shaft power
Pshaft = Ph/ηpump
Electrical power
Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor
Pump head
H = Δz + Δp/(ρ·g) + hL
System losses
hL = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Normal distribution
z-score
z = (x − μ)/σ
Below x
P(X < x) = Φ(z)
Above x
P(X > x) = 1 − Φ(z)
Between
Φ(z2) − Φ(z1)
Percentile
x = μ + z·σ
Method
Convert the value to a z-score: z = (x − μ)/σ.
Look up Φ(z), the area to the left of z.
For the area to the right use 1 − Φ(z); for an interval subtract the two left areas.
For a percentile, work backwards: find z for the area, then x = μ + z·σ.
2Practice problems
1.Beam support reactionsMedium
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RB.
L = 10 mP1 = 20 kN at 3 mP2 = 15 kN at 8 m
RB = kN
2.Beam support reactionsHard
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RA.
L = 10 mP = 45 kN at 3 mw = 4 kN/m from 2 to 3 m
RA = kN
3.Truss: method of jointsMedium
Exactly one member of this truss carries no force under these loads. Which is the zero-force member? Click it in the diagram.
B: 10 kN ↓D: 40 kN ↓G: 15 kN ↓H: 30 kN ↓
1member AB
2member BC
3member CD
4member DE
5member FG
6member GH
7member AF
8member HE
9member BF
10member CG
11member DH
12member BG
13member DG
4.Truss: method of jointsHard
Use the method of joints to find the force FAC in member AC. Give tension as positive and compression as negative.
span = 5 mheight = 2 mB is 3 m from Avertical load = 55 kNhorizontal load = 5 kN →
FAC = kN
5.Shear force & bending momentMedium
The beam rests on a pin at A and a roller at B and overhangs B by 2 m to the free end C. It carries a point load P1 between the supports and a point load P2 at C. Find the bending moment Mx under the load P1. Use sagging moments positive and upward shear on the left face positive.
L = 7 mP1 = 55 kN at 1 mP2 = 80 kN at 7 msupports at x = 0 and x = 5 m
Mx = kN·m
6.Shear force & bending momentHard
The simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole span and a point load P. Find the maximum bending moment Mmax in the beam.
L = 5 mP = 65 kN at 4 mw = 6 kN/m from 0 to 5 m
Mmax = kN·m
7.Beam deflectionMedium
A cantilever carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole length. Find the deflection δ at the free end.
w = 20 kN/mL = 3 mE = 200 GPa (steel)I = 160 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δ = mm
8.Beam deflectionHard
A simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load w and a point load P at midspan. Using superposition, find the midspan deflection δmax.
P = 2 kNw = 4 kN/mL = 5 mE = 200 GPa (steel)I = 120 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δmax = mm
9.Column bucklingMedium
A column of length L made of aluminium is fixed at the base and free at the top. Using Euler’s formula, find its critical buckling load Pcr.
L = 4 mE = 70 GPa (aluminium)d = 60 mm
Pcr = kN
10.Column bucklingHard
A column of length L made of aluminium is pinned at both ends. Find its slenderness and the critical buckling stress σcr from Euler’s formula.
L = 2.5 mE = 70 GPa (aluminium)d = 80 mm
σcr = MPa
11.Centroid & second moment of areaMedium
A symmetric I-section has flanges 180 mm wide and 24 mm thick, an overall depth of 440 mm and a web 14 mm thick. Find its second moment of area Ix about the horizontal centroidal axis x.
B = 180 mmH = 440 mmtf = 24 mmtw = 14 mm
Ix = × 10⁶ mm⁴
12.Centroid & second moment of areaHard
The T-section is used as a beam with the flange on top and carries a sagging bending moment of 25 kN·m. Find the size of the bending stress σtop at the top edge.
A 6 m thick overconsolidated clay layer has Cc = 0.25, Cr = 0.03 and e₀ = 0.85. At its mid-depth the effective vertical stress is 115 kPa and the overconsolidation ratio is OCR = 2.5. A new building adds 170 kPa of vertical stress at mid-depth. Find the primary consolidation settlement S in mm.
A clay layer 6 m thick has a coefficient of consolidation cv = 2.5 m²/year. It lies on impervious rock, with sand above it, so water drains out only at the top. For 60% average consolidation the time factor is Tv = 0.287. How many years t does the layer take to reach 60% consolidation?
A vertical rectangular gate 1 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of water, with its top edge 1.5 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
A vertical rectangular gate 1 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of glycerin, with its top edge 3 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
Water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) flows at 2.7 m/s through a horizontal pipe, 1000 m long, with an inside diameter of 100 mm. Use the Darcy friction factor f = 0.02 and g = 9.81 m/s². Find the pressure drop Δp over the pipe in kPa.
Two open reservoirs are joined by a pipe 100 m long with an inside diameter of 250 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.02. The minor losses are a square-edged entrance (K = 0.5), 4 bends (K = 0.3 each), a valve (K = 5) and the exit into the lower reservoir (K = 1.0). Use g = 9.81 m/s². What difference in water level Δz between the reservoirs gives a flow rate of 60 L/s?
A trapezoidal grass-lined earth channel has a bottom width of 1 m and side slopes of 3:1 (horizontal:vertical). Water flows uniformly 2.1 m deep. Manning n = 0.03 and the bed slope is S = 0.002. Find the flow rate Q in m³/s.
b = 1 my = 2.1 mz = 3n = 0.03S = 0.002
Q = m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)Hard
A concrete sewer with an inside diameter of 450 mm (Manning n = 0.013) must reach a self-cleansing velocity of 0.9 m/s when flowing just full. Find the minimum slope S (in m/m).
D = 450 mmn = 0.013V = 0.9 m/s
S = m/m
23.Pumps & pump powerMedium
In a test, a pump delivers 60 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) against a head of 44 m while its shaft takes 37 kW. Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the pump efficiency η in percent.
Q = 60 L/sH = 44 mPshaft = 37 kWg = 9.81 m/s²
η = %
24.Pumps & pump powerHard
A pump moves 50 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) from an open lower reservoir to an upper tank whose water surface is 5 m higher. The pipe is 200 m long with an inside diameter of 150 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.02; the minor-loss coefficients add up to ΣK = 2.5 (entrance and exit included). Use g = 9.81 m/s². The pump efficiency is 75%. Find the shaft power Pshaft in kW.
A credit card charges a nominal interest rate of 22% per year, compounded daily. Find the effective annual rate EAR in percent.
r = 22%m = 365
EAR = %
26.Time value of moneyHard
A loan of €12 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 4 years. The interest rate is 4.8% per year, compounded monthly. Find the monthly payment A.
P = €12 0004.8% / 12N = 48
A = €
27.NPV & IRRMedium
A project costs €60 000 today and returns €19 500, €13 500, €16 000, €23 000, €12 500 at the end of years 1 to 5. The cost of capital is 12%. Assume cash flows arrive evenly through each year. Find the discounted payback period DPB in years.
A project costs €50 000 and returns €34 000, €30 000, €28 000 at the end of years 1 to 3. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.
CF0 = −50 000CF1 = 34 000CF2 = 30 000CF3 = 28 000
IRR = %
29.Normal distributionMedium
X is normal with mean 60 s and standard deviation 5 s; Y is independent and normal with mean 45 s and standard deviation 4 s. Find the probability P that X + Y is more than 98.6 s. Round z to two decimals.
μX = 60, σX = 5μY = 45, σY = 4X + Y > 98.6 s
P =
30.Normal distributionHard
Hole diameters D are normal with mean 25.04 mm and standard deviation 0.02 mm. Shaft diameters d are independent and normal with mean 25 mm and standard deviation 0.01 mm. A randomly chosen shaft fits when D − d > 0. Find the probability P that it fits. Round z to two decimals.
hole: μ = 25.04 mm, σ = 0.02 mmshaft: μ = 25 mm, σ = 0.01 mm
P =
3Solutions
1.Beam support reactions
Answer: RB = 18 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
ΣMA = 0: RB·10 = 20·3 + 15·8
RB = 180/10 = 18 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 35 − 18 = 17 kN
Answer
RB = 18 kN
2.Beam support reactions
Answer: RA = 34.5 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 4·1 = 4 kN, acting at x̄ = 2.5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·10 = 45·3 + 4·1·2.5
RB = 145/10 = 14.5 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 49 − 14.5 = 34.5 kN
Answer
RA = 34.5 kN
3.Truss: method of joints
Answer: member CG
Zero-force members: at a joint, the forces must balance in every direction. If a joint has no load and no support, and two of its three members are in line, then the balance across that line involves only the third member, so its force is zero. If only two members meet at an unloaded joint and they are not in line, both are zero.
Joint C
BC and CD lie on one straight line and the joint carries no load. Balancing forces across that line leaves only CG.
ΣF⊥ = 0 → FCG = 0
Check with the method of joints
Solving all joints gives these member forces (T = tension, C = compression).
Method of joints: every pin of a truss is in equilibrium, so ΣFx = 0 and ΣFy = 0 at each joint. Start at a joint with at most two unknown member forces. A negative result means the member is in compression.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole truss. Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive.
ΣMA = 0: Cy·5 = 55·3 + 5·2 → Cy = 35 kN
ΣFy = 0: Ay = 55 − 35 = 20 kN
ΣFx = 0: Ax = −5 kN
Joint C
The roller gives only a vertical reaction, so joint C has just two unknown member forces. Assume both in tension.
sin γ = 2/2.828 = 0.7071, cos γ = 2/2.828 = 0.7071
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam. The overhang load also acts about A.
ΣMA = 0: RB·5 = 55·1 + 80·7
RB = 615/5 = 123 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 135 − 123 = 12 kN
Cut under P1 and keep the left part
Mx = RA·1 = 12·1 = 12 kN·m
Answer
Mx = 12 kN·m
6.Shear force & bending moment
Answer: Mmax = 64 kN·m
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut. Maximum moment: since dM/dx = V, the bending moment has its peak where the shear force passes through zero, either at a point load or inside a distributed load.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 6·5 = 30 kN, acting at x̄ = 2.5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·5 = 65·4 + 6·5·2.5
RB = 335/5 = 67 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 95 − 67 = 28 kN
Where is V = 0?
V(4⁻) = RA − w·4 = 4 kN
V(4⁺) = 4 − 65 = −61 kN
The shear changes sign at the load, so the maximum is under the load.
Maximum moment
Mmax = RA·4 − w·4²/2 = 28·4 − 6·4²/2 = 64 kN·m
Answer
Mmax = 64 kN·m
It occurs at x = 4 m from A.
7.Beam deflection
Answer: δ = 6.328 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
w = 20 N/mm, L = 3000 mm
EI = 3.2 × 10¹³ N·mm²
Deflection
δ = wL⁴/(8EI) = 20·3000⁴/(8·3.2 × 10¹³) = 6.328 mm
Answer
δ = 6.328 mm
8.Beam deflection
Answer: δmax = 1.573 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
P = 2000 N, w = 4 N/mm, L = 5000 mm, EI = 2.4 × 10¹³ N·mm²
Each load on its own
δP = PL³/(48EI) = 2000·5000³/(48·2.4 × 10¹³) = 0.217 mm
δw = 5wL⁴/(384EI) = 5·4·5000⁴/(384·2.4 × 10¹³) = 1.356 mm
Add them
δmax = 0.217 + 1.356 = 1.573 mm
Answer
δmax = 1.573 mm
9.Column buckling
Answer: Pcr = 6.867 kN
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Smallest second moment of area
A round section has the same I about every axis.
I = πd⁴/64 = π·80⁴/64 = 2.011 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Radius of gyration and slenderness
A = 5027 mm²
r = √(I/A) = √(2.011 × 10⁶/5027) = 20 mm
KL = 1·2500 = 2500 mm
KL/r = 2500/20 = 125
Critical stress
σcr = π²E/(KL/r)² = π²·70000/125² = 44.22 MPa
Answer
σcr = 44.22 MPa
11.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: Ix = 444.5 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Second moment of area: for a rectangle about its own centroidal axis I = bh³/12, and about its base bh³/3 (parallel-axis theorem I = Ic + A·d²). A hole is handled by subtracting its I, as long as both parts share the same axis. The elastic section modulus is S = I/c, where c is the distance to the extreme fibre.
Outer rectangle minus the two side cut-outs
Both cut-outs together are (B − tw) wide and hw = H − 2tf high, and share the axis x.
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Split into two rectangles
Measure every y from the bottom edge.
flange: Af = 180·25 = 4500 mm², yf = 280 + 25/2 = 292.5 mm
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·4 = 39.24 kPa
Effective stress
σ′ = σ − u = 142 − 39.24 = 102.8 kPa
Answer
σ′ = 102.8 kPa
14.Effective stress in soil
Answer: σ′ = 87.14 kPa
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
σ = γd·2 + γsat,sand·2 + γsat,clay·4
σ = 16·2 + 20·2 + 18.5·4 = 146 kPa
Pore water pressure
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·6 = 58.86 kPa
Effective stress
σ′ = σ − u = 146 − 58.86 = 87.14 kPa
Answer
σ′ = 87.14 kPa
15.Consolidation settlement
Answer: S = 38.35 mm
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Preconsolidation pressure
σ′p = OCR·σ′0 = 2.5·115 = 287.5 kPa
Compare with the preconsolidation pressure
σ′f = 115 + 170 = 285 kPa ≤ 287.5 kPa
Settlement
The clay stays on its recompression line.
S = Cr·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0) = 0.03·6/(1 + 0.85)·log₁₀(285/115) = 38.35 mm
Answer
S = 38.35 mm
16.Consolidation settlement
Answer: t = 4.133 years
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Drainage path
Hdr = H = 6 m
Time
t = Tv·Hdr²/cv = 0.287·6²/2.5 = 4.133 years
Answer
t = 4.133 years
17.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 67.44 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 1.5 + 2.5/2 = 2.75 m
A = H·b = 2.5·1 = 2.5 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1000·9.81·2.75·2.5 = 67.44 kN
Answer
F = 67.44 kN
18.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 69.53 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 3 + 1.5/2 = 3.75 m
A = H·b = 1.5·1 = 1.5 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1260·9.81·3.75·1.5 = 69.53 kN
Answer
F = 69.53 kN
19.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: Δp = 729 kPa
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Head loss
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g) = 0.02·(1000/0.1)·2.7²/(2·9.81) = 74.31 m
Pressure drop
The pipe is horizontal and the velocity does not change, so the energy equation reduces to Δp = ρ·g·hf.
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Velocity
V = Q/A = 0.06/0.04909 = 1.222 m/s
V²/(2g) = 0.07615 m
Loss coefficients
f·L/D = 0.02·100/0.25 = 8
ΣK = 0.5 + 4·0.3 + 5 + 1.0 = 7.7
Total head loss
hf = 8·0.07615 = 0.6092 m
hm = 7.7·0.07615 = 0.5863 m
Δz = hf + hm = 1.196 m
Answer
Δz = 1.196 m
21.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: Q = 23.96 m³/s
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Geometry
A = (b + z·y)·y = (1 + 3·2.1)·2.1 = 15.33 m²
P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²) = 1 + 2·2.1·√(1 + 3²) = 14.28 m
R = A/P = 1.073 m
Velocity
V = (1/0.03)·1.0732/3·0.0021/2 = 1.563 m/s
Flow rate
Q = A·V = 15.33·1.563 = 23.96 m³/s
Answer
Q = 23.96 m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: S = 0.002521 m/m
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Hydraulic radius
R = D/4 = 0.45/4 = 0.1125 m
Solve Manning for S
S = (n·V/R2/3)² = (0.013·0.9/0.233)² = 0.002521
Answer
S = 0.002521
That is a fall of 2.521 m per kilometre.
23.Pumps & pump power
Answer: η = 70 %
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = 1000·9.81·0.06·44 = 25.9 kW
Efficiency
η = Ph/Pshaft = 25.9/37 = 70%
Answer
η = 70%
24.Pumps & pump power
Answer: Pshaft = 11.05 kW
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Rate per period
r/m = 0.22/365 = 0.0006027
Compound over one year
EAR = (1 + 0.0006027)365 − 1 = 1.246 − 1 = 24.6%
Answer
EAR = 24.6%
The EAR is always above the nominal rate when interest compounds more than once a year.
26.Time value of money
Answer: A = 275.3 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Monthly rate and number of payments
i = 0.048/12 = 0.004
N = 12·4 = 48
Payment
The present value of N equal payments A is A·(1 − (1 + i)⁻ᴺ)/i. Set it equal to the loan and solve for A.
(1 + i)−N = 0.8256
A = 12 000·0.004/(1 − 0.8256) = €275.27
Answer
A = €275.27
27.NPV & IRR
Answer: DPB = 4.821 years
Payback period: the time until the cumulative cash flows repay the initial investment. Cash is assumed to come in evenly during each year, so the last part is a fraction of a year. The simple payback ignores the time value of money; the discounted payback period uses the discounted cash flows instead.
Discounted and cumulative cash flows
year 1: 19 500/1.12 = 17 410.71 → Σ = 17 410.71
year 2: 13 500/1.254 = 10 762.12 → Σ = 28 172.83
year 3: 16 000/1.405 = 11 388.48 → Σ = 39 561.32
year 4: 23 000/1.574 = 14 616.92 → Σ = 54 178.23
year 5: 12 500/1.762 = 7 092.84 → Σ = 61 271.07
Fraction of the last year
DPB = 4 + 5 821.77/7 092.84 = 4.821
Answer
DPB = 4.821 years
The discounted payback is always longer than the simple payback (3.478 years).
28.NPV & IRR
Answer: IRR = 39.67 %
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Bracket the IRR
NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.
NPV(35%) = 3 026.47
NPV(40%) = −204.08
Narrow down
Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.
Sums and differences of normal variables: if X and Y are independent and normal, X + Y and X − Y are normal too. Means add or subtract: E(X ± Y) = μX ± μY. Variances always add, also for a difference: Var(X ± Y) = σX² + σY², so σ = √(σX² + σY²). Standard deviations never add directly. The total of n independent items with the same distribution has mean n·μ and standard deviation σ·√n. Then standardise as usual: z = (x − mean)/σ and read Φ(z).
Distribution of the sum
μ = 105 s, σ = √(5² + 4²) = 6.403 s
Standardise
z = (98.6 − 105)/6.403 = −1
Upper tail
P = 1 − Φ(−1) = 1 − 0.1587 = 0.8413
Answer
P = 0.8413
30.Normal distribution
Answer: P = 0.9633
Sums and differences of normal variables: if X and Y are independent and normal, X + Y and X − Y are normal too. Means add or subtract: E(X ± Y) = μX ± μY. Variances always add, also for a difference: Var(X ± Y) = σX² + σY², so σ = √(σX² + σY²). Standard deviations never add directly. The total of n independent items with the same distribution has mean n·μ and standard deviation σ·√n. Then standardise as usual: z = (x − mean)/σ and read Φ(z).
Distribution of the difference
μ = 25.04 − 25 = 0.04 mm, σ = 0.02236 mm
Standardise
z = (0 − 0.04)/0.02236 = −1.79
Probability
P = 1 − Φ(−1.79) = 0.9633
Answer
P = 0.9633
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