laminar below Re ≈ 2000, turbulent above Re ≈ 4000
Mean velocity
V = Q/A, A = π·D²/4
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g)
Minor losses
hm = ΣK·V²/(2g)
Typical K values
entrance 0.5, exit 1.0, 90° bend ≈ 0.3
Pressure drop
Δp = ρ·g·hf
Two open reservoirs
Δz = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Free outlet
H = (1 + f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Open-channel flow (Manning)
Manning equation
V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2
Flow rate
Q = A·V
Hydraulic radius
R = A/P (P = wetted perimeter, free surface excluded)
Rectangle
A = b·y, P = b + 2y
Trapezoid (side slope z:1)
A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²)
Circular pipe, full or half full
R = D/4
Required slope
S = (n·Q/(A·R2/3))²
Pumps & pump power
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp
Shaft power
Pshaft = Ph/ηpump
Electrical power
Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor
Pump head
H = Δz + Δp/(ρ·g) + hL
System losses
hL = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Normal distribution
z-score
z = (x − μ)/σ
Below x
P(X < x) = Φ(z)
Above x
P(X > x) = 1 − Φ(z)
Between
Φ(z2) − Φ(z1)
Percentile
x = μ + z·σ
Method
Convert the value to a z-score: z = (x − μ)/σ.
Look up Φ(z), the area to the left of z.
For the area to the right use 1 − Φ(z); for an interval subtract the two left areas.
For a percentile, work backwards: find z for the area, then x = μ + z·σ.
2Practice problems
1.Beam support reactionsMedium
The simply supported beam (pin at A, roller at B) carries a linearly varying load that rises from zero at A to 4 kN/m at B. A point load P also acts at 2 m from A. Find the vertical support reaction RA.
L = 5 mw0 = 4 kN/mP = 40 kN at 2 m
RA = kN
2.Beam support reactionsHard
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RB.
L = 6 mP = 50 kN at 5 mw = 8 kN/m from 1 to 6 m
RB = kN
3.Truss: method of jointsMedium
Exactly one member of this truss carries no force under these loads. Which is the zero-force member? Click it in the diagram.
C: 20 kN ↓D: 15 kN ↓G: 20 kN ↓H: 15 kN ↓
1member AB
2member BC
3member CD
4member DE
5member FG
6member GH
7member AF
8member HE
9member BF
10member CG
11member DH
12member FC
13member HC
4.Truss: method of jointsHard
Exactly one member of this truss carries no force under these loads. Which is the zero-force member? Click it in the diagram.
The marks A to G split the beam into six equal parts. At which mark is the bending moment largest in size, sagging or hogging? Click it in the diagram.
45 kN @ 8 m5 kN/m, 0–12 m
1A (x = 0 m)
2B (x = 2 m)
3C (x = 4 m)
4D (x = 6 m)
5E (x = 8 m)
6F (x = 10 m)
7G (x = 12 m)
6.Shear force & bending momentHard
The beam rests on a pin at A and a roller at B and overhangs B by 2.5 m to the free end C. A uniformly distributed load w acts over the whole length A–C. Find the bending moment MB at support B. Use sagging moments positive and upward shear on the left face positive.
L = 10.5 mw = 12 kN/m from 0 to 10.5 msupports at x = 0 and x = 8 m
MB = kN·m
7.Beam deflectionMedium
A simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole span. Find the maximum deflection δmax, at midspan.
w = 8 kN/mL = 2 mE = 11 GPa (timber)I = 120 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δmax = mm
8.Beam deflectionHard
A simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load w. Its deflection may not exceed span/360. Find the smallest second moment of area Ireq that meets this limit.
w = 12 kN/mL = 4 mE = 11 GPa (timber)
Ireq = × 10⁶ mm⁴
9.Column bucklingMedium
A column of length L made of steel is fixed at the base and free at the top. Using Euler’s formula, find its critical buckling load Pcr.
L = 6 mE = 200 GPa (steel)d = 60 mm
Pcr = kN
10.Column bucklingHard
A column of length L made of steel is fixed at the base and free at the top. Find its slenderness and the critical buckling stress σcr from Euler’s formula.
L = 5 mE = 200 GPa (steel)d = 50 mm
σcr = MPa
11.Centroid & second moment of areaMedium
Find the second moment of area Ix of the T-section about the horizontal axis x through its centroid.
bf = 120 mmtf = 20 mmtw = 20 mmhw = 160 mm
Ix = × 10⁶ mm⁴
12.Centroid & second moment of areaHard
A welded I-section has a top flange 160 × 18 mm, a web 260 mm high and 8 mm thick, and a bottom flange 220 × 20 mm (width × thickness). Find its second moment of area Ix about the horizontal axis x through its centroid.
top flange: 160 × 18 mmweb: 8 × 260 mmbottom flange: 220 × 20 mm
Ix = × 10⁶ mm⁴
13.Effective stress in soilMedium
For the soil profile shown, find the total vertical stress σ at point X.
A 5 m thick overconsolidated clay layer has Cc = 0.5, Cr = 0.05 and e₀ = 0.9. At its mid-depth the effective vertical stress is 45 kPa and the preconsolidation pressure is 85 kPa. A new building adds 120 kPa of vertical stress at mid-depth. Find the primary consolidation settlement S in mm.
In a laboratory oedometer test, a clay specimen 20 mm thick, drained at the top and bottom, reaches 50% consolidation in 15 min. In the field the same clay forms a layer 8.5 m thick. It lies between two sand layers, so water drains out at the top and the bottom. How many days t does the field layer take to reach 50% consolidation?
A vertical rectangular gate 3 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of water, with its top edge 0.5 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
A vertical rectangular gate 3 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of seawater, with its top edge 3 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
Water flows at 6 L/s through a pipe 1000 m long with an inside diameter of 75 mm. Use the Darcy friction factor f = 0.028 and g = 9.81 m/s². Find the friction head loss hf.
Two open reservoirs are joined by a pipe 300 m long with an inside diameter of 250 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.022. The water surface of the upper reservoir is 8 m above that of the lower one. The minor losses are a square-edged entrance (K = 0.5), 3 bends (K = 0.3 each), a valve (K = 10) and the exit into the lower reservoir (K = 1.0). Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the flow rate Q in L/s.
A concrete storm sewer with an inside diameter of 750 mm flows just full (as an open channel, not under pressure). Manning n = 0.013 and the slope is S = 0.0005. Find the flow rate Q in m³/s.
D = 750 mmn = 0.013S = 0.0005
Q = m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)Hard
A rectangular grass-lined earth channel 6 m wide must carry 3.6 m³/s in uniform flow at a depth of 0.5 m. Manning n = 0.03. Find the required bed slope S (in m/m).
Q = 3.6 m³/sb = 6 my = 0.5 mn = 0.03
S = m/m
23.Pumps & pump powerMedium
In a test, a pump delivers 50 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) against a head of 56 m while its shaft takes 38.2 kW. Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the pump efficiency η in percent.
Q = 50 L/sH = 56 mPshaft = 38.2 kWg = 9.81 m/s²
η = %
24.Pumps & pump powerHard
A pump moves 80 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) from an open lower reservoir to an upper tank whose water surface is 26 m higher. The pipe is 100 m long with an inside diameter of 200 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.015; the minor-loss coefficients add up to ΣK = 8 (entrance and exit included). Use g = 9.81 m/s². The upper tank is closed and the air above its water is at a gauge pressure of 400 kPa. Find the head H the pump must add.
You need €20 000 in 2 years. An account pays 3.6% per year, compounded quarterly. How much must you deposit today? Find the present value PV.
FV = €20 0003.6% / 4n = 2
PV = €
26.Time value of moneyHard
You save €150 at the end of every month for 17 years. The account pays 7.2% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.
A = €1507.2% / 12N = 204
FV = €
27.NPV & IRRMedium
A machine costs €80 000 today. It generates €14 500 at the end of each year for 7 years and can then be sold for €16 000. The cost of capital is 12%. Find the net present value NPV.
C0 = €80 000CF = €14 500S = €16 000n = 7r = 12%
NPV = €
28.NPV & IRRHard
Project A costs €40 000 and returns €23 000, €15 500, €9 500 at the end of years 1 to 3. Project B costs €45 000 and returns €13 000, €18 500, €24 000. Find the crossover rate r* at which both projects have the same NPV, in percent.
Drag z so that the shaded area between −z and z under the standard normal curve is 0.9523. Find z to two decimals.
A = 0.9523
z =
30.Normal distributionHard
The bag weights are normally distributed with mean 250 g and standard deviation 5 g. Drag the cut-off so the shaded bottom 15% is to the left of it. Find the cut-off x.
μ = 250 gσ = 5 g15%
x = g
3Solutions
1.Beam support reactions
Answer: RA = 27.33 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Replace each distributed load by its resultant (its area) acting at the centroid of the load diagram, and take moments about a support to remove that support’s reaction from the equation.
Resultant of the triangular load
W = ½·4·5 = 10 kN
x̄ = 2L/3 = 3.333 m
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
ΣMA = 0: RB·5 = 10·3.333 + 40·2
RB = 22.67 kN
RA = 50 − 22.67 = 27.33 kN
Answer
RA = 27.33 kN
2.Beam support reactions
Answer: RB = 65 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 8·5 = 40 kN, acting at x̄ = 3.5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·6 = 50·5 + 8·5·3.5
RB = 390/6 = 65 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 90 − 65 = 25 kN
Answer
RB = 65 kN
3.Truss: method of joints
Answer: member BF
Zero-force members: at a joint, the forces must balance in every direction. If a joint has no load and no support, and two of its three members are in line, then the balance across that line involves only the third member, so its force is zero. If only two members meet at an unloaded joint and they are not in line, both are zero.
Joint B
AB and BC lie on one straight line and the joint carries no load. Balancing forces across that line leaves only BF.
ΣF⊥ = 0 → FBF = 0
Check with the method of joints
Solving all joints gives these member forces (T = tension, C = compression).
Zero-force members: at a joint, the forces must balance in every direction. If a joint has no load and no support, and two of its three members are in line, then the balance across that line involves only the third member, so its force is zero. If only two members meet at an unloaded joint and they are not in line, both are zero.
Joint B
AB and BC lie on one straight line and the joint carries no load. Balancing forces across that line leaves only BF.
ΣF⊥ = 0 → FBF = 0
Check with the method of joints
Solving all joints gives these member forces (T = tension, C = compression).
Largest bending moment: M changes slope wherever the shear force changes, so its peaks sit where the shear force crosses zero: under a point load, inside a distributed load, or over a support of an overhang. At a fixed support of a cantilever the moment is largest at the wall. Compare the size of M at those places, sagging or hogging.
Support reactions
Take moments about one support, then use the vertical force balance.
R1 = 45 kN, R2 = 60 kN
Bending moment at every mark
Sum the moments of all forces on one side of the cut. Sagging is positive, hogging negative.
MA = 0, MB = 80, MC = 140, MD = 180, ME = 200 kN·m, MF = 110, MG = 0
Answer
Mark E: ME = 200 kN·m
6.Shear force & bending moment
Answer: MB = −37.5 kN·m
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut. Maximum moment: since dM/dx = V, the bending moment has its peak where the shear force passes through zero, either at a point load or inside a distributed load.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam, including the load on the overhang.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 12·10.5 = 126 kN, acting at x̄ = 5.25 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·8 = 12·10.5·5.25
RB = 661.5/8 = 82.69 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 126 − 82.69 = 43.31 kN
Cut at B and keep the overhang
The load on the overhang, w·a, acts at a/2 from B and makes the beam hog over the support.
MB = −w·a²/2 = −12·2.5²/2 = −37.5 kN·m
Answer
MB = −37.5 kN·m
7.Beam deflection
Answer: δmax = 1.263 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
w = 8 N/mm, L = 2000 mm
EI = 1.32 × 10¹² N·mm²
Deflection
δmax = 5wL⁴/(384EI) = 5·8·2000⁴/(384·1.32 × 10¹²) = 1.263 mm
Answer
δmax = 1.263 mm
8.Beam deflection
Answer: Ireq = 327.3 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Deflection limit
δallow = L/360 = 4000/360 = 11.11 mm
Required second moment of area
I = 5wL⁴/(384·E·δallow) = 5·12·4000⁴/(384·11000·11.11) = 3.273 × 10⁸ mm⁴
Ireq = 327.3 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Answer
Ireq = 327.3 × 10⁶ mm⁴
9.Column buckling
Answer: Pcr = 8.721 kN
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Smallest second moment of area
A round section has the same I about every axis.
I = πd⁴/64 = π·50⁴/64 = 306796 mm⁴
Radius of gyration and slenderness
A = 1963 mm²
r = √(I/A) = √(306796/1963) = 12.5 mm
KL = 2·5000 = 10000 mm
KL/r = 10000/12.5 = 800
Critical stress
σcr = π²E/(KL/r)² = π²·200000/800² = 3.084 MPa
Answer
σcr = 3.084 MPa
11.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: Ix = 18.02 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Split into two rectangles
Measure every y from the bottom edge.
flange: Af = 120·20 = 2400 mm², yf = 160 + 20/2 = 170 mm
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Split into three rectangles
Measure every y from the bottom edge.
top flange: A = 2880 mm², y = 289 mm
web: A = 2080 mm², y = 150 mm
bottom flange: A = 4400 mm², y = 10 mm
Centroid
ȳ = (2880·289 + 2080·150 + 4400·10)/9360 = 127 mm
Parallel-axis theorem
top flange: 160·18³/12 + 2880·162² = 7.57 × 10⁷ mm⁴
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
σ = γd·zw + γsat·(z − zw) = 16·4 + 20·5 = 164 kPa
Answer
σ = 164 kPa
14.Effective stress in soil
Answer: σ = 131 kPa
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
σ = γd·2 + γsat,sand·3 + γsat,clay·2.5
σ = 16.5·2 + 18.5·3 + 17·2.5 = 131 kPa
Answer
σ = 131 kPa
15.Consolidation settlement
Answer: S = 415.4 mm
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Compare with the preconsolidation pressure
σ′f = 45 + 120 = 165 kPa > 85 kPa
Settlement
Recompression up to σ′p, virgin compression beyond it.
S = 0.05·5/(1 + 0.9)·log₁₀(85/45) + 0.5·5/(1 + 0.9)·log₁₀(165/85)
S = 36.34 + 379 = 415.4 mm
Answer
S = 415.4 mm
16.Consolidation settlement
Answer: t = 1882 days
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Drainage paths
Hdr,lab = 20/2 = 10 mm = 0.01 m
Hdr,field = 8.5/2 = 4.25 m
Scale the time
t = Tv·Hdr²/cv with the same T_v and cv in the lab and the field.
tfield = 15·(4.25/0.01)² = 2.709 × 10⁶ min
tfield = 2.709 × 10⁶/1440 = 1882 days
Answer
t = 1882 days
17.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 29.43 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 0.5 + 1/2 = 1 m
A = H·b = 1·3 = 3 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1000·9.81·1·3 = 29.43 kN
Answer
F = 29.43 kN
18.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 320.5 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 3 + 2.5/2 = 4.25 m
A = H·b = 2.5·3 = 7.5 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1025·9.81·4.25·7.5 = 320.5 kN
Answer
F = 320.5 kN
19.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: hf = 35.1 m
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Mean velocity
A = π·0.075²/4 = 0.004418 m²
V = Q/A = 0.006/0.004418 = 1.358 m/s
Velocity head
V²/(2g) = 1.358²/(2·9.81) = 0.09401 m
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g) = 0.028·(1000/0.075)·1.358²/(2·9.81) = 35.1 m
Answer
hf = 35.1 m
20.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: Q = 98.73 L/s
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Loss coefficients
f·L/D = 0.022·300/0.25 = 26.4
ΣK = 0.5 + 3·0.3 + 10 + 1.0 = 12.4
Energy equation
Both surfaces are open to the air and practically at rest, so all of Δz is lost in the pipe.
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Geometry
A = 0.4418 m², R = D/4 = 0.1875 m
Velocity
V = (1/0.013)·0.18752/3·0.00051/2 = 0.5635 m/s
Flow rate
Q = A·V = 0.4418·0.5635 = 0.2489 m³/s
Answer
Q = 0.2489 m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: S = 0.004011 m/m
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = 1000·9.81·0.05·56 = 27.47 kW
Efficiency
η = Ph/Pshaft = 27.47/38.2 = 71.91%
Answer
η = 71.91%
24.Pumps & pump power
Answer: H = 71.9 m
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Both surfaces are practically at rest, so there is no velocity head term.
H = Δz + p/(ρ·g) + hL = 26 + 40.77 + 5.123 = 71.9 m
Answer
H = 71.9 m
25.Time value of money
Answer: PV = 18617 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Rate and number of periods
i = 0.036000000000000004/4 = 0.009
N = 4·2 = 8
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)N = 20 000/1.074 = €18 616.61
Answer
PV = €18 616.61
26.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 59709 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
You paid in €30 600 yourself; the rest is interest.
27.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = −6588 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of the yearly cash flows
14 500·4.564 = 66 174.47
Present value of the salvage value
16 000/2.211 = 7 237.59
NPV
NPV = −80 000 + 66 174.47 + 7 237.59 = −€6 587.94
Answer
NPV = −€6 587.94
28.NPV & IRR
Answer: r* = 7.381 %
Crossover rate: the discount rate at which two projects have the same NPV. It is the IRR of the difference in their cash flows (B − A). Below it the project with the later, larger cash flows has the higher NPV; above it the other one wins.
Difference in cash flows
ΔCF0 = −45 000 − (−40 000) = −5 000
ΔCF1 = 13 000 − 23 000 = −10 000
ΔCF2 = 18 500 − 15 500 = 3 000
ΔCF3 = 24 000 − 9 500 = 14 500
IRR of the difference
NPVΔ(7%) = 110.84
NPVΔ(8%) = −176.68
r* = 7.381%
Answer
r* = 7.381%
Check: at 7.381% both NPVs are €2 534.27.
29.Normal distribution
Answer: z = 1.98
From an area back to z: Φ(z) is the area to the left of z. For a left-tail area A, find z with Φ(z) = A in the table. A right-tail area A means Φ(z) = 1 − A. A central area A between −z and z leaves (1 − A)/2 in each tail, so Φ(z) = (1 + A)/2. For a value x, use x = μ + zσ.
Area to the left of z
Φ(z) = (1 + 0.9523)/2 = 0.9761
Read the z-table backwards
Find 0.9761 inside the table and read off z.
z = 1.98
Answer
z = 1.98
30.Normal distribution
Answer: x = 244.8 g
From an area back to z: Φ(z) is the area to the left of z. For a left-tail area A, find z with Φ(z) = A in the table. A right-tail area A means Φ(z) = 1 − A. A central area A between −z and z leaves (1 − A)/2 in each tail, so Φ(z) = (1 + A)/2. For a value x, use x = μ + zσ.
Area to the left
Φ(z) = 0.15
z from the table
z ≈ −1.04
Back to the original units
x = 250 − 1.04·5 = 244.8 g
Answer
x = 244.8 g
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