laminar below Re ≈ 2000, turbulent above Re ≈ 4000
Mean velocity
V = Q/A, A = π·D²/4
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g)
Minor losses
hm = ΣK·V²/(2g)
Typical K values
entrance 0.5, exit 1.0, 90° bend ≈ 0.3
Pressure drop
Δp = ρ·g·hf
Two open reservoirs
Δz = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Free outlet
H = (1 + f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Open-channel flow (Manning)
Manning equation
V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2
Flow rate
Q = A·V
Hydraulic radius
R = A/P (P = wetted perimeter, free surface excluded)
Rectangle
A = b·y, P = b + 2y
Trapezoid (side slope z:1)
A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²)
Circular pipe, full or half full
R = D/4
Required slope
S = (n·Q/(A·R2/3))²
Pumps & pump power
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp
Shaft power
Pshaft = Ph/ηpump
Electrical power
Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor
Pump head
H = Δz + Δp/(ρ·g) + hL
System losses
hL = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Normal distribution
z-score
z = (x − μ)/σ
Below x
P(X < x) = Φ(z)
Above x
P(X > x) = 1 − Φ(z)
Between
Φ(z2) − Φ(z1)
Percentile
x = μ + z·σ
Method
Convert the value to a z-score: z = (x − μ)/σ.
Look up Φ(z), the area to the left of z.
For the area to the right use 1 − Φ(z); for an interval subtract the two left areas.
For a percentile, work backwards: find z for the area, then x = μ + z·σ.
2Practice problems
1.Beam support reactionsMedium
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. It carries a point load P at 0.5 m from A and a clockwise couple M at 3 m from A. Find the vertical reaction RA, taking upward as positive.
L = 4 mP = 20 kN at 0.5 mM = 60 kN·m (clockwise) at 3 m
RA = kN
2.Beam support reactionsHard
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RB.
L = 4 mP = 55 kN at 2 mw = 2 kN/m from 2 to 4 m
RB = kN
3.Truss: method of jointsMedium
Use the method of joints to find the force FAC in member AC. Give tension as positive and compression as negative.
span = 8 mheight = 2 mB is 6 m from Avertical load = 40 kN
FAC = kN
4.Truss: method of jointsHard
Exactly one member of this truss carries no force under these loads. Which is the zero-force member? Click it in the diagram.
F: 20 kN →
1member AB
2member BC
3member CD
4member DE
5member FG
6member GH
7member AF
8member HE
9member BF
10member CG
11member DH
12member BG
13member DG
5.Shear force & bending momentMedium
Find the shear force Vx at the section x = 0.5 m from support A. Use sagging moments positive and upward shear on the left face positive.
L = 5 mw = 5 kN/m from 0 to 5 mx = 0.5 m
Vx = kN
6.Shear force & bending momentHard
The simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole span and a point load P. Find the maximum bending moment Mmax in the beam.
L = 4 mP = 65 kN at 3 mw = 5 kN/m from 0 to 4 m
Mmax = kN·m
7.Beam deflectionMedium
A simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole span. Find the slope θA of the beam at support A, in radians.
w = 5 kN/mL = 6 mE = 200 GPa (steel)I = 57 × 10⁶ mm⁴
θA = rad
8.Beam deflectionHard
A simply supported beam carries a point load P at b = 1 m from support B. Find the deflection δmid at midspan.
P = 8 kNb = 1 mL = 5 mE = 70 GPa (aluminium)I = 12 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δmid = mm
9.Column bucklingMedium
A column of length L made of steel is fixed at the base and free at the top. Using Euler’s formula, find its critical buckling load Pcr.
L = 1.5 mE = 200 GPa (steel)b × h = 20 × 40 mm
Pcr = kN
10.Column bucklingHard
A solid round column of length L made of steel is fixed at the base and pinned at the top. It must carry 120 kN with a factor of safety of 2 against buckling. Find the smallest diameter d.
P = 120 kNn = 2L = 5 mE = 200 GPa (steel)
d = mm
11.Centroid & second moment of areaMedium
A symmetric I-section has flanges 240 mm wide and 22 mm thick, an overall depth of 320 mm and a web 8 mm thick. Find its elastic section modulus Sx for bending about the horizontal centroidal axis x.
B = 240 mmH = 320 mmtf = 22 mmtw = 8 mm
Sx = × 10³ mm³
12.Centroid & second moment of areaHard
A welded I-section has a top flange 130 × 24 mm, a web 340 mm high and 10 mm thick, and a bottom flange 170 × 20 mm (width × thickness). Find its second moment of area Ix about the horizontal axis x through its centroid.
top flange: 130 × 24 mmweb: 10 × 340 mmbottom flange: 170 × 20 mm
Ix = × 10⁶ mm⁴
13.Effective stress in soilMedium
For the soil profile shown, find the vertical effective stress σ′ at point X.
A 4 m thick overconsolidated clay layer has Cc = 0.2, Cr = 0.04 and e₀ = 1.2. At its mid-depth the effective vertical stress is 50 kPa and the preconsolidation pressure is 110 kPa. A new building adds 120 kPa of vertical stress at mid-depth. Find the primary consolidation settlement S in mm.
A clay layer 6 m thick has a coefficient of consolidation cv = 2 m²/year. It lies between two sand layers, so water drains out at the top and the bottom. For 90% average consolidation the time factor is Tv = 0.848. How many years t does the layer take to reach 90% consolidation?
A vertical rectangular gate 3 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of water, with its top edge 1 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
d = 1 mH = 1 mb = 3 mρ = 1000 kg/m³g = 9.81 m/s²
F = kN
18.Hydrostatic forceHard
A vertical rectangular gate 1 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of oil, with its top edge 2 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
d = 2 mH = 3 mb = 1 mρ = 880 kg/m³g = 9.81 m/s²
F = kN
19.Pipe friction & head lossMedium
Water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) flows at 2.4 m/s through a horizontal pipe, 50 m long, with an inside diameter of 75 mm. Use the Darcy friction factor f = 0.018 and g = 9.81 m/s². Find the pressure drop Δp over the pipe in kPa.
Two open reservoirs are joined by a pipe 150 m long with an inside diameter of 100 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.015. The minor losses are a square-edged entrance (K = 0.5), 3 bends (K = 0.3 each), a valve (K = 5) and the exit into the lower reservoir (K = 1.0). Use g = 9.81 m/s². What difference in water level Δz between the reservoirs gives a flow rate of 15 L/s?
A concrete storm sewer with an inside diameter of 450 mm flows just full (as an open channel, not under pressure). Manning n = 0.013 and the slope is S = 0.0005. Find the flow rate Q in m³/s.
D = 450 mmn = 0.013S = 0.0005
Q = m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)Hard
A rectangular unfinished concrete channel 4 m wide must carry 19 m³/s in uniform flow at a depth of 1.4 m. Manning n = 0.014. Find the required bed slope S (in m/m).
Q = 19 m³/sb = 4 my = 1.4 mn = 0.014
S = m/m
23.Pumps & pump powerMedium
In a test, a pump delivers 30 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) against a head of 36 m while its shaft takes 17.7 kW. Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the pump efficiency η in percent.
Q = 30 L/sH = 36 mPshaft = 17.7 kWg = 9.81 m/s²
η = %
24.Pumps & pump powerHard
A pump moves 60 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) from an open lower reservoir to an upper tank whose water surface is 12 m higher. The pipe is 100 m long with an inside diameter of 200 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.015; the minor-loss coefficients add up to ΣK = 6 (entrance and exit included). Use g = 9.81 m/s². The upper tank is closed and the air above its water is at a gauge pressure of 250 kPa. Find the head H the pump must add.
A credit card charges a nominal interest rate of 24% per year, compounded daily. Find the effective annual rate EAR in percent.
r = 24%m = 365
EAR = %
26.Time value of moneyHard
You borrow €25 000 at 2.4% per year, compounded monthly, and repay €300 at the end of every month. How many months does it take until the loan is repaid (the last payment may be smaller)? Give the number of payments N.
P = €25 000A = €3002.4% / 12
N = payments
27.NPV & IRRMedium
An investment of €60 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 3: €17 000, €18 000, €18 000. The cost of capital is 15%. Find the net present value NPV.
An investment of €40 000 returns €6 500 at the end of each year for 10 years. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.
C0 = €40 000CF = €6 500n = 10
IRR = %
29.Normal distributionMedium
The masses of bolts are independent and normal with mean 40 g and standard deviation 1.2 g. Find the probability P that the total mass of 6 of them is below 242.9 g. Round z to two decimals.
μ = 40 gσ = 1.2 gn = 6< 242.9 g
P =
30.Normal distributionHard
Hole diameters D are normal with mean 25.03 mm and standard deviation 0.015 mm. Shaft diameters d are independent and normal with mean 25 mm and standard deviation 0.02 mm. A randomly chosen shaft fits when D − d > 0. Find the probability P that it fits. Round z to two decimals.
hole: μ = 25.03 mm, σ = 0.015 mmshaft: μ = 25 mm, σ = 0.02 mm
P =
3Solutions
1.Beam support reactions
Answer: RA = 2.5 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Replace each distributed load by its resultant (its area) acting at the centroid of the load diagram, and take moments about a support to remove that support’s reaction from the equation.
Moments about A
Counter-clockwise positive.
ΣMA = 0: RB·4 − 20·0.5 − 60 = 0
RB = 70/4 = 17.5 kN
Vertical equilibrium
RA = 20 − 17.5 = 2.5 kN
Answer
RA = 2.5 kN
A negative reaction acts downward.
2.Beam support reactions
Answer: RB = 30.5 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 2·2 = 4 kN, acting at x̄ = 3 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·4 = 55·2 + 2·2·3
RB = 122/4 = 30.5 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 59 − 30.5 = 28.5 kN
Answer
RB = 30.5 kN
3.Truss: method of joints
Answer: FAC = 30 kN
Method of joints: every pin of a truss is in equilibrium, so ΣFx = 0 and ΣFy = 0 at each joint. Start at a joint with at most two unknown member forces. A negative result means the member is in compression.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole truss. Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive.
ΣMA = 0: Cy·8 = 40·6 → Cy = 30 kN
ΣFy = 0: Ay = 40 − 30 = 10 kN
Joint C
The roller gives only a vertical reaction, so joint C has just two unknown member forces. Assume both in tension.
sin γ = 2/2.828 = 0.7071, cos γ = 2/2.828 = 0.7071
Zero-force members: at a joint, the forces must balance in every direction. If a joint has no load and no support, and two of its three members are in line, then the balance across that line involves only the third member, so its force is zero. If only two members meet at an unloaded joint and they are not in line, both are zero.
Joint C
BC and CD lie on one straight line and the joint carries no load. Balancing forces across that line leaves only CG.
ΣF⊥ = 0 → FCG = 0
Check with the method of joints
Solving all joints gives these member forces (T = tension, C = compression).
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 5·5 = 25 kN, acting at x̄ = 2.5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·5 = 5·5·2.5
RB = 62.5/5 = 12.5 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 25 − 12.5 = 12.5 kN
Cut at x = 0.5 m and keep the left part
Only forces left of the cut appear. A UDL portion acts as one force at the middle of that portion.
V = RA − (all downward loads left of the cut)
Vx = 12.5 − 5·0.5 = 10 kN
Answer
Vx = 10 kN
6.Shear force & bending moment
Answer: Mmax = 56.25 kN·m
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut. Maximum moment: since dM/dx = V, the bending moment has its peak where the shear force passes through zero, either at a point load or inside a distributed load.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 5·4 = 20 kN, acting at x̄ = 2 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·4 = 65·3 + 5·4·2
RB = 235/4 = 58.75 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 85 − 58.75 = 26.25 kN
Where is V = 0?
V(3⁻) = RA − w·3 = 11.25 kN
V(3⁺) = 11.25 − 65 = −53.75 kN
The shear changes sign at the load, so the maximum is under the load.
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition). The slope θ = dv/dx is the first integral of M/(EI); in consistent units it comes out in radians.
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
w = 5 N/mm, L = 6000 mm
EI = 1.14 × 10¹³ N·mm²
End slope
θA = wL³/(24EI) = 5·6000³/(24·1.14 × 10¹³) = 0.003947 rad
Answer
θA = 0.003947 rad
That is 0.2262°.
8.Beam deflection
Answer: δmid = 14.09 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Smallest second moment of area
A rectangle buckles about its weak axis, using the smaller dimension cubed.
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Required critical load
Pcr = n·P = 2·120000 = 240000 N
KL = 0.7·5000 = 3500 mm
Solve for the diameter
d = (64·n·P·(KL)²/(π³E))^(1/4) = (64·240000·3500²/(π³·200000))^(1/4) = 74.22 mm
Answer
d = 74.22 mm
Check: the slenderness KL/r is 188.6, so the column is slender and Euler applies.
11.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: Sx = 1556 × 10³ mm³
Second moment of area: for a rectangle about its own centroidal axis I = bh³/12, and about its base bh³/3 (parallel-axis theorem I = Ic + A·d²). A hole is handled by subtracting its I, as long as both parts share the same axis. The elastic section modulus is S = I/c, where c is the distance to the extreme fibre.
Outer rectangle minus the two side cut-outs
Both cut-outs together are (B − tw) wide and hw = H − 2tf high, and share the axis x.
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Split into three rectangles
Measure every y from the bottom edge.
top flange: A = 3120 mm², y = 372 mm
web: A = 3400 mm², y = 190 mm
bottom flange: A = 3400 mm², y = 10 mm
Centroid
ȳ = (3120·372 + 3400·190 + 3400·10)/9920 = 185.5 mm
Parallel-axis theorem
top flange: 130·24³/12 + 3120·186.5² = 1.086 × 10⁸ mm⁴
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·6 = 58.86 kPa
Effective stress
σ′ = σ − u = 147 − 58.86 = 88.14 kPa
Answer
σ′ = 88.14 kPa
14.Effective stress in soil
Answer: σ = 148 kPa
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
σ = γd·2 + γsat,sand·4 + γsat,clay·2
σ = 15·2 + 20.5·4 + 18·2 = 148 kPa
Answer
σ = 148 kPa
15.Consolidation settlement
Answer: S = 93.65 mm
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Compare with the preconsolidation pressure
σ′f = 50 + 120 = 170 kPa > 110 kPa
Settlement
Recompression up to σ′p, virgin compression beyond it.
S = 0.04·4/(1 + 1.2)·log₁₀(110/50) + 0.2·4/(1 + 1.2)·log₁₀(170/110)
S = 24.9 + 68.75 = 93.65 mm
Answer
S = 93.65 mm
16.Consolidation settlement
Answer: t = 3.816 years
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Drainage path
Hdr = H/2 = 6/2 = 3 m
Time
t = Tv·Hdr²/cv = 0.848·3²/2 = 3.816 years
Answer
t = 3.816 years
17.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 44.15 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 1 + 1/2 = 1.5 m
A = H·b = 1·3 = 3 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1000·9.81·1.5·3 = 44.15 kN
Answer
F = 44.15 kN
18.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 90.64 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 2 + 3/2 = 3.5 m
A = H·b = 3·1 = 3 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 880·9.81·3.5·3 = 90.64 kN
Answer
F = 90.64 kN
19.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: Δp = 34.56 kPa
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Head loss
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g) = 0.018·(50/0.075)·2.4²/(2·9.81) = 3.523 m
Pressure drop
The pipe is horizontal and the velocity does not change, so the energy equation reduces to Δp = ρ·g·hf.
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Velocity
V = Q/A = 0.015/0.007854 = 1.91 m/s
V²/(2g) = 0.1859 m
Loss coefficients
f·L/D = 0.015·150/0.1 = 22.5
ΣK = 0.5 + 3·0.3 + 5 + 1.0 = 7.4
Total head loss
hf = 22.5·0.1859 = 4.183 m
hm = 7.4·0.1859 = 1.376 m
Δz = hf + hm = 5.559 m
Answer
Δz = 5.559 m
21.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: Q = 0.06375 m³/s
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Geometry
A = 0.159 m², R = D/4 = 0.1125 m
Velocity
V = (1/0.013)·0.11252/3·0.00051/2 = 0.4008 m/s
Flow rate
Q = A·V = 0.159·0.4008 = 0.06375 m³/s
Answer
Q = 0.06375 m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: S = 0.002923 m/m
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = 1000·9.81·0.03·36 = 10.59 kW
Efficiency
η = Ph/Pshaft = 10.59/17.7 = 59.86%
Answer
η = 59.86%
24.Pumps & pump power
Answer: H = 39.99 m
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Both surfaces are practically at rest, so there is no velocity head term.
H = Δz + p/(ρ·g) + hL = 12 + 25.48 + 2.51 = 39.99 m
Answer
H = 39.99 m
25.Time value of money
Answer: EAR = 27.11 %
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Rate per period
r/m = 0.24/365 = 0.0006575
Compound over one year
EAR = (1 + 0.0006575)365 − 1 = 1.271 − 1 = 27.11%
Answer
EAR = 27.11%
The EAR is always above the nominal rate when interest compounds more than once a year.
26.Time value of money
Answer: N = 92 payments
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Rearrange the annuity formula
i = 0.002
(1 + i)−N = 1 − 25 000·0.002/300 = 0.8333
Solve with logarithms
N = −ln(0.8333)/ln(1.002) = 91.25
Round up to whole payments
91 full payments leave a small balance, which the last, smaller payment clears.
N = 92
Answer
N = 92 payments
27.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = −19772 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of each cash flow
CF0 = −60 000
CF1/(1 + 0.15)1 = 17 000/1.15 = 14 782.61
CF2/(1 + 0.15)2 = 18 000/1.322 = 13 610.59
CF3/(1 + 0.15)3 = 18 000/1.521 = 11 835.29
Add them up
NPV = €−19 771.51
Answer
NPV = €−19 771.51
NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.
28.NPV & IRR
Answer: IRR = 9.965 %
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Required annuity factor
(1 − (1 + i)−10)/i = 40 000/6 500 = 6.154
Solve for the rate
The annuity factor falls as the rate rises; bracket the rate and narrow down.
i = 9%: 6.418
i = 10%: 6.145
IRR = 9.965%
Answer
IRR = 9.965%
29.Normal distribution
Answer: P = 0.8389
Sums and differences of normal variables: if X and Y are independent and normal, X + Y and X − Y are normal too. Means add or subtract: E(X ± Y) = μX ± μY. Variances always add, also for a difference: Var(X ± Y) = σX² + σY², so σ = √(σX² + σY²). Standard deviations never add directly. The total of n independent items with the same distribution has mean n·μ and standard deviation σ·√n. Then standardise as usual: z = (x − mean)/σ and read Φ(z).
Distribution of the total
μT = 240 g, σT = 1.2·√6 = 2.939 g
Standardise
z = (242.9 − 240)/2.939 = 0.99
Probability
P = Φ(0.99) = 0.8389
Answer
P = 0.8389
30.Normal distribution
Answer: P = 0.8849
Sums and differences of normal variables: if X and Y are independent and normal, X + Y and X − Y are normal too. Means add or subtract: E(X ± Y) = μX ± μY. Variances always add, also for a difference: Var(X ± Y) = σX² + σY², so σ = √(σX² + σY²). Standard deviations never add directly. The total of n independent items with the same distribution has mean n·μ and standard deviation σ·√n. Then standardise as usual: z = (x − mean)/σ and read Φ(z).
Distribution of the difference
μ = 25.03 − 25 = 0.03 mm, σ = 0.025 mm
Standardise
z = (0 − 0.03)/0.025 = −1.2
Probability
P = 1 − Φ(−1.2) = 0.8849
Answer
P = 0.8849
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