laminar below Re ≈ 2000, turbulent above Re ≈ 4000
Mean velocity
V = Q/A, A = π·D²/4
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g)
Minor losses
hm = ΣK·V²/(2g)
Typical K values
entrance 0.5, exit 1.0, 90° bend ≈ 0.3
Pressure drop
Δp = ρ·g·hf
Two open reservoirs
Δz = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Free outlet
H = (1 + f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Open-channel flow (Manning)
Manning equation
V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2
Flow rate
Q = A·V
Hydraulic radius
R = A/P (P = wetted perimeter, free surface excluded)
Rectangle
A = b·y, P = b + 2y
Trapezoid (side slope z:1)
A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²)
Circular pipe, full or half full
R = D/4
Required slope
S = (n·Q/(A·R2/3))²
Pumps & pump power
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp
Shaft power
Pshaft = Ph/ηpump
Electrical power
Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor
Pump head
H = Δz + Δp/(ρ·g) + hL
System losses
hL = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Normal distribution
z-score
z = (x − μ)/σ
Below x
P(X < x) = Φ(z)
Above x
P(X > x) = 1 − Φ(z)
Between
Φ(z2) − Φ(z1)
Percentile
x = μ + z·σ
Method
Convert the value to a z-score: z = (x − μ)/σ.
Look up Φ(z), the area to the left of z.
For the area to the right use 1 − Φ(z); for an interval subtract the two left areas.
For a percentile, work backwards: find z for the area, then x = μ + z·σ.
2Practice problems
1.Beam support reactionsMedium
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. It carries a point load P at 2.5 m from A and a clockwise couple M at 0.5 m from A. Find the vertical reaction RA, taking upward as positive.
L = 4 mP = 60 kN at 2.5 mM = 30 kN·m (clockwise) at 0.5 m
RA = kN
2.Beam support reactionsHard
A compound beam is fixed to the wall at A, has an internal hinge at C (4 m from A) and rests on a roller at D (10 m from A). It carries a point load P at 5 m from A, a uniformly distributed load w on the whole part CD and a point load Q at 1 m from A. Find the reaction RD at the roller.
AC = 4 mAD = 10 mP = 75 kN at 5 mw = 12 kN/m from 4 to 10 mQ = 65 kN at 1 m
RD = kN
3.Truss: method of jointsMedium
Use the method of joints to find the force FBC in member BC. Give tension as positive and compression as negative.
span = 6 mheight = 3 mB is 5 m from Avertical load = 20 kN
FBC = kN
4.Truss: method of jointsHard
Exactly one member of this truss carries no force under these loads. Which is the zero-force member? Click it in the diagram.
B: 35 kN ↓D: 10 kN ↓F: 15 kN ↓F: 10 kN →
1member AB
2member BC
3member CD
4member DE
5member FG
6member GH
7member AF
8member HE
9member BF
10member CG
11member DH
12member FC
13member HC
5.Shear force & bending momentMedium
Find the bending moment Mx at the section x = 5.5 m from support A. Use sagging moments positive and upward shear on the left face positive.
L = 10 mw = 5 kN/m from 0 to 10 mx = 5.5 m
Mx = kN·m
6.Shear force & bending momentHard
The simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load over part of its span. Find the maximum bending moment Mmax in the beam.
L = 8 mw = 24 kN/m from 0 to 5 m
Mmax = kN·m
7.Beam deflectionMedium
A simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole span. Find the slope θA of the beam at support A, in radians.
w = 15 kN/mL = 1.5 mE = 70 GPa (aluminium)I = 12 × 10⁶ mm⁴
θA = rad
8.Beam deflectionHard
A simply supported timber beam of rectangular section, 125 mm wide, carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole span. Its midspan deflection may not exceed span/300. Find the smallest depth hreq of the section.
w = 3 kN/mL = 5 mE = 11 GPa (timber)b = 125 mm
hreq = mm
9.Column bucklingMedium
A column of length L made of steel is fixed at both ends. Using Euler’s formula, find its critical buckling load Pcr.
L = 2.5 mE = 200 GPa (steel)d = 20 mm
Pcr = kN
10.Column bucklingHard
A column of length L made of steel is fixed at both ends. Find its slenderness and the critical buckling stress σcr from Euler’s formula.
L = 3 mE = 200 GPa (steel)d = 25 mm
σcr = MPa
11.Centroid & second moment of areaMedium
Find the second moment of area Ix of the T-section about the horizontal axis x through its centroid.
bf = 240 mmtf = 10 mmtw = 16 mmhw = 300 mm
Ix = × 10⁶ mm⁴
12.Centroid & second moment of areaHard
A cast-iron beam has the T-section shown, with the flange on top. The allowable stresses are 40 MPa in tension and 90 MPa in compression. Find the largest sagging bending moment Mallow the beam can carry.
A 4 m thick overconsolidated clay layer has Cc = 0.4, Cr = 0.05 and e₀ = 1. At its mid-depth the effective vertical stress is 40 kPa and the preconsolidation pressure is 160 kPa. A new building adds 65 kPa of vertical stress at mid-depth. Find the primary consolidation settlement S in mm.
In a laboratory oedometer test, a clay specimen 19 mm thick, drained at the top and bottom, reaches 50% consolidation in 10 min. In the field the same clay forms a layer 9 m thick. It lies between two sand layers, so water drains out at the top and the bottom. How many days t does the field layer take to reach 50% consolidation?
A vertical rectangular gate 1.5 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of water, with its top edge 4 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
A vertical rectangular gate 1 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of seawater, with its top edge 1.5 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
Water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) flows at 1.3 m/s through a horizontal pipe, 400 m long, with an inside diameter of 100 mm. Use the Darcy friction factor f = 0.015 and g = 9.81 m/s². Find the pressure drop Δp over the pipe in kPa.
A pipe 200 m long with an inside diameter of 250 mm (Darcy friction factor f = 0.018) runs from an open reservoir and discharges as a free jet into the air. The minor losses are a square-edged entrance (K = 0.5), 2 bends (K = 0.3 each) and a valve (K = 10). Use g = 9.81 m/s². How far H must the reservoir surface be above the pipe outlet for a flow rate of 75 L/s?
A rectangular clean earth channel is 2.5 m wide. Water flows uniformly 2 m deep. Manning n = 0.022 and the bed slope is S = 0.004. Find the flow rate Q in m³/s.
b = 2.5 my = 2 mn = 0.022S = 0.004
Q = m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)Hard
A concrete sewer with an inside diameter of 450 mm (Manning n = 0.013) must reach a self-cleansing velocity of 1 m/s when flowing just full. Find the minimum slope S (in m/m).
D = 450 mmn = 0.013V = 1 m/s
S = m/m
23.Pumps & pump powerMedium
A pump with an efficiency of 80% delivers 100 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) against a head of 10 m. Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the shaft power Pshaft needed, in kW.
Q = 100 L/sH = 10 mη = 80%g = 9.81 m/s²
Pshaft = kW
24.Pumps & pump powerHard
A pump moves 50 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) from an open lower reservoir to an upper tank whose water surface is 29 m higher. The pipe is 150 m long with an inside diameter of 150 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.015; the minor-loss coefficients add up to ΣK = 5 (entrance and exit included). Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the head H the pump must add.
An annuity pays €5 000 at the end of each year for 20 years. The interest rate is 6% per year. Find the present value PV of the annuity.
A = €5 000i = 6%n = 20
PV = €
26.Time value of moneyHard
You deposit €6 000 at the start of every year for 17 years, the first deposit today. The account pays 5% per year. How much is in the account at the end of year 17? Find FV.
A = €6 000i = 5%n = 17
FV = €
27.NPV & IRRMedium
An investment of €75 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 3: €37 000, €33 000, €31 000. The cost of capital is 12%. Find the net present value NPV.
A project costs €50 000 and returns €37 000, €25 500, €26 000 at the end of years 1 to 3. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.
CF0 = −50 000CF1 = 37 000CF2 = 25 500CF3 = 26 000
IRR = %
29.Normal distributionMedium
Drag z so that the shaded area under the standard normal curve, to the right of z, is 0.1292. Find z to two decimals.
A = 0.1292
z =
30.Normal distributionHard
The battery lifetimes are normally distributed with mean 500 h and standard deviation 40 h. Find the value x below which 20% of them lie (the 20th percentile).
μ = 500σ = 40P = 20%
x = h
3Solutions
1.Beam support reactions
Answer: RA = 15 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Replace each distributed load by its resultant (its area) acting at the centroid of the load diagram, and take moments about a support to remove that support’s reaction from the equation.
Moments about A
Counter-clockwise positive.
ΣMA = 0: RB·4 − 60·2.5 − 30 = 0
RB = 180/4 = 45 kN
Vertical equilibrium
RA = 60 − 45 = 15 kN
Answer
RA = 15 kN
A negative reaction acts downward.
2.Beam support reactions
Answer: RD = 48.5 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Replace each distributed load by its resultant (its area) acting at the centroid of the load diagram, and take moments about a support to remove that support’s reaction from the equation. An internal hinge cannot carry a bending moment, which gives one extra equation: the moment about the hinge of the forces on either side is zero.
Part CD
The hinge has no moment, so moments about C on CD alone must balance.
W = 12·6 = 72 kN at 3 m from C
ΣMC = 0: RD·6 = 75·1 + 72·3
RD = 48.5 kN
VC = 147 − 48.5 = 98.5 kN
Answer
RD = 48.5 kN
3.Truss: method of joints
Answer: FBC = −17.57 kN
Method of joints: every pin of a truss is in equilibrium, so ΣFx = 0 and ΣFy = 0 at each joint. Start at a joint with at most two unknown member forces. A negative result means the member is in compression.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole truss. Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive.
ΣMA = 0: Cy·6 = 20·5 → Cy = 16.67 kN
ΣFy = 0: Ay = 20 − 16.67 = 3.333 kN
Joint C
The roller gives only a vertical reaction, so joint C has just two unknown member forces. Assume both in tension.
sin γ = 3/3.162 = 0.9487, cos γ = 1/3.162 = 0.3162
Zero-force members: at a joint, the forces must balance in every direction. If a joint has no load and no support, and two of its three members are in line, then the balance across that line involves only the third member, so its force is zero. If only two members meet at an unloaded joint and they are not in line, both are zero.
Joint G
FG and GH lie on one straight line and the joint carries no load. Balancing forces across that line leaves only CG.
ΣF⊥ = 0 → FCG = 0
Check with the method of joints
Solving all joints gives these member forces (T = tension, C = compression).
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 5·10 = 50 kN, acting at x̄ = 5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·10 = 5·10·5
RB = 250/10 = 25 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 50 − 25 = 25 kN
Cut at x = 5.5 m and keep the left part
Only forces left of the cut appear. A UDL portion acts as one force at the middle of that portion.
M = RA·x − (each load left of the cut × its distance to the cut)
Mx = 25·5.5 − 5·5.5·2.75 = 61.88 kN·m
Answer
Mx = 61.88 kN·m
6.Shear force & bending moment
Answer: Mmax = 141.8 kN·m
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut. Maximum moment: since dM/dx = V, the bending moment has its peak where the shear force passes through zero, either at a point load or inside a distributed load.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 24·5 = 120 kN, acting at x̄ = 2.5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·8 = 24·5·2.5
RB = 300/8 = 37.5 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 120 − 37.5 = 82.5 kN
Zero shear
The shear force starts at RA, stays constant over any unloaded part and falls with slope w inside the load.
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition). The slope θ = dv/dx is the first integral of M/(EI); in consistent units it comes out in radians.
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
w = 15 N/mm, L = 1500 mm
EI = 8.4 × 10¹¹ N·mm²
End slope
θA = wL³/(24EI) = 15·1500³/(24·8.4 × 10¹¹) = 0.002511 rad
Answer
θA = 0.002511 rad
That is 0.1439°.
8.Beam deflection
Answer: hreq = 233.8 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
bh³/12 = Ireq → h = (12·1.332 × 10⁸/125)1/3 = 233.8 mm
Answer
hreq = 233.8 mm
In practice, choose the next standard depth above this value.
9.Column buckling
Answer: Pcr = 9.922 kN
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Smallest second moment of area
A round section has the same I about every axis.
I = πd⁴/64 = π·25⁴/64 = 19175 mm⁴
Radius of gyration and slenderness
A = 490.9 mm²
r = √(I/A) = √(19175/490.9) = 6.25 mm
KL = 0.5·3000 = 1500 mm
KL/r = 1500/6.25 = 240
Critical stress
σcr = π²E/(KL/r)² = π²·200000/240² = 34.27 MPa
Answer
σcr = 34.27 MPa
11.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: Ix = 74.46 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Split into two rectangles
Measure every y from the bottom edge.
flange: Af = 240·10 = 2400 mm², yf = 300 + 10/2 = 305 mm
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Sagging: the top is in compression, the bottom in tension.
top edge: M = 90·1.352 × 10⁷/52.68 = 23.09 kN·m
bottom edge: M = 40·1.352 × 10⁷/132.3 = 4.087 kN·m
Governing value
Mallow = min = 4.087 kN·m (bottom edge)
Answer
Mallow = 4.087 kN·m
13.Effective stress in soil
Answer: σ′ = 100.8 kPa
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·4 = 39.24 kPa
Effective stress
σ′ = σ − u = 140 − 39.24 = 100.8 kPa
Answer
σ′ = 100.8 kPa
14.Effective stress in soil
Answer: σ′ = 104.1 kPa
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
σ = γd·3 + γsat,sand·2 + γsat,clay·4
σ = 17·3 + 20·2 + 18·4 = 163 kPa
Pore water pressure
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·6 = 58.86 kPa
Effective stress
σ′ = σ − u = 163 − 58.86 = 104.1 kPa
Answer
σ′ = 104.1 kPa
15.Consolidation settlement
Answer: S = 41.91 mm
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Compare with the preconsolidation pressure
σ′f = 40 + 65 = 105 kPa ≤ 160 kPa
Settlement
The clay stays on its recompression line.
S = Cr·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0) = 0.05·4/(1 + 1)·log₁₀(105/40) = 41.91 mm
Answer
S = 41.91 mm
16.Consolidation settlement
Answer: t = 1558 days
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Drainage paths
Hdr,lab = 19/2 = 9.5 mm = 0.0095 m
Hdr,field = 9/2 = 4.5 m
Scale the time
t = Tv·Hdr²/cv with the same T_v and cv in the lab and the field.
tfield = 10·(4.5/0.0095)² = 2.244 × 10⁶ min
tfield = 2.244 × 10⁶/1440 = 1558 days
Answer
t = 1558 days
17.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 193.1 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 4 + 2.5/2 = 5.25 m
A = H·b = 2.5·1.5 = 3.75 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1000·9.81·5.25·3.75 = 193.1 kN
Answer
F = 193.1 kN
18.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 50.28 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 1.5 + 2/2 = 2.5 m
A = H·b = 2·1 = 2 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1025·9.81·2.5·2 = 50.28 kN
Answer
F = 50.28 kN
19.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: Δp = 50.7 kPa
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Head loss
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g) = 0.015·(400/0.1)·1.3²/(2·9.81) = 5.168 m
Pressure drop
The pipe is horizontal and the velocity does not change, so the energy equation reduces to Δp = ρ·g·hf.
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Velocity
V = Q/A = 0.075/0.04909 = 1.528 m/s
V²/(2g) = 0.119 m
Loss coefficients
f·L/D = 0.018·200/0.25 = 14.4
ΣK = 0.5 + 2·0.3 + 10 = 11.1
Energy equation
The outlet jet still carries its velocity head; it is not a loss but it has to be supplied.
H = (1 + 14.4 + 11.1)·0.119 = 3.153 m
Answer
H = 3.153 m
21.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: Q = 12.07 m³/s
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Geometry
A = b·y = 2.5·2 = 5 m²
P = b + 2y = 2.5 + 2·2 = 6.5 m
R = A/P = 0.7692 m
Velocity
V = (1/0.022)·0.76922/3·0.0041/2 = 2.413 m/s
Flow rate
Q = A·V = 5·2.413 = 12.07 m³/s
Answer
Q = 12.07 m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: S = 0.003112 m/m
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Hydraulic radius
R = D/4 = 0.45/4 = 0.1125 m
Solve Manning for S
S = (n·V/R2/3)² = (0.013·1/0.233)² = 0.003112
Answer
S = 0.003112
That is a fall of 3.112 m per kilometre.
23.Pumps & pump power
Answer: Pshaft = 12.26 kW
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = 1000·9.81·0.1·10 = 9.81 kW
Shaft power
Pshaft = Ph/η = 9.81/0.8 = 12.26 kW
Answer
Pshaft = 12.26 kW
24.Pumps & pump power
Answer: H = 37.16 m
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Both surfaces are open and practically at rest, so pressure and velocity terms drop out.
H = Δz + hL = 29 + 8.161 = 37.16 m
Answer
H = 37.16 m
25.Time value of money
Answer: PV = 57350 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Annuity factor
(1 − (1 + i)−n)/i = (1 − 0.3118)/0.06 = 11.47
Present value
PV = 5 000·11.47 = €57 349.61
Answer
PV = €57 349.61
26.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 162794 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Ordinary annuity factor
((1 + 0.05)17 − 1)/0.05 = 25.84
Annuity due
Each deposit is invested one year longer.
FV = 6 000·25.84·1.05 = €162 794.31
Answer
FV = €162 794.31
27.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = 6408 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of each cash flow
CF0 = −75 000
CF1/(1 + 0.12)1 = 37 000/1.12 = 33 035.71
CF2/(1 + 0.12)2 = 33 000/1.254 = 26 307.40
CF3/(1 + 0.12)3 = 31 000/1.405 = 22 065.19
Add them up
NPV = €6 408.30
Answer
NPV = €6 408.30
NPV is positive, so the project earns more than the required return.
28.NPV & IRR
Answer: IRR = 38.16 %
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Bracket the IRR
NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.
NPV(35%) = 1 966.67
NPV(40%) = −1 086.01
Narrow down
Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.
From an area back to z: Φ(z) is the area to the left of z. For a left-tail area A, find z with Φ(z) = A in the table. A right-tail area A means Φ(z) = 1 − A. A central area A between −z and z leaves (1 − A)/2 in each tail, so Φ(z) = (1 + A)/2. For a value x, use x = μ + zσ.
Area to the left of z
Φ(z) = 1 − 0.1292 = 0.8708
Read the z-table backwards
Find 0.8708 inside the table and read off z.
z = 1.13
Answer
z = 1.13
30.Normal distribution
Answer: x = 466.3 h
Normal distribution: convert a value x to a z-score, z = (x − μ)/σ, which counts standard deviations from the mean. A z-table (or Φ(z)) gives the area to the left of z, which is P(X < x). The area to the right is 1 − Φ(z), and the area between two values is the difference of their two areas.
z for the percentile
Φ(z) = 0.2 → z = −0.8416
Back to x
x = 500 + −0.8416·40 = 466.34 h
Answer
x = 466.34 h
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