laminar below Re ≈ 2000, turbulent above Re ≈ 4000
Mean velocity
V = Q/A, A = π·D²/4
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g)
Minor losses
hm = ΣK·V²/(2g)
Typical K values
entrance 0.5, exit 1.0, 90° bend ≈ 0.3
Pressure drop
Δp = ρ·g·hf
Two open reservoirs
Δz = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Free outlet
H = (1 + f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Open-channel flow (Manning)
Manning equation
V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2
Flow rate
Q = A·V
Hydraulic radius
R = A/P (P = wetted perimeter, free surface excluded)
Rectangle
A = b·y, P = b + 2y
Trapezoid (side slope z:1)
A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²)
Circular pipe, full or half full
R = D/4
Required slope
S = (n·Q/(A·R2/3))²
Pumps & pump power
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp
Shaft power
Pshaft = Ph/ηpump
Electrical power
Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor
Pump head
H = Δz + Δp/(ρ·g) + hL
System losses
hL = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Normal distribution
z-score
z = (x − μ)/σ
Below x
P(X < x) = Φ(z)
Above x
P(X > x) = 1 − Φ(z)
Between
Φ(z2) − Φ(z1)
Percentile
x = μ + z·σ
Method
Convert the value to a z-score: z = (x − μ)/σ.
Look up Φ(z), the area to the left of z.
For the area to the right use 1 − Φ(z); for an interval subtract the two left areas.
For a percentile, work backwards: find z for the area, then x = μ + z·σ.
2Practice problems
1.Beam support reactionsMedium
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RB.
L = 6 mP1 = 20 kN at 1 mP2 = 20 kN at 1.5 m
RB = kN
2.Beam support reactionsHard
The cantilever beam is fixed to the wall at A. It carries a linearly varying load that is 6 kN/m at the wall and falls to zero at the free end B, plus a point load P at 2.5 m from the wall. Find the magnitude of the reaction moment MA at the wall.
L = 5 mw0 = 6 kN/mP = 20 kN at 2.5 m
MA = kN·m
3.Truss: method of jointsMedium
Use the method of joints to find the force FAB in member AB. Give tension as positive and compression as negative.
span = 5 mheight = 3 mB is 2 m from Avertical load = 45 kN
FAB = kN
4.Truss: method of jointsHard
Exactly one member of this truss carries no force under these loads. Which is the zero-force member? Click it in the diagram.
The simply supported beam carries a clockwise couple M0 = 20 kN·m at x = 1 m from A, and no other load. Find the bending moment Mx just to the left of the couple. Use sagging moments positive and upward shear on the left face positive.
L = 5 mM0 = 20 kN·m clockwise, at 1 m
Mx = kN·m
6.Shear force & bending momentHard
Find the bending moment Mx at the section x = 4 m from support A. Use sagging moments positive and upward shear on the left face positive.
L = 8 mP = 40 kN at 4 mw = 4 kN/m from 0 to 8 mx = 4 m
Mx = kN·m
7.Beam deflectionMedium
A simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole span. Find the maximum deflection δmax, at midspan.
w = 12 kN/mL = 6 mE = 200 GPa (steel)I = 23 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δmax = mm
8.Beam deflectionHard
A simply supported timber beam of rectangular section, 75 mm wide, carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole span. Its midspan deflection may not exceed span/300. Find the smallest depth hreq of the section.
w = 3 kN/mL = 4 mE = 11 GPa (timber)b = 75 mm
hreq = mm
9.Column bucklingMedium
A column of length L made of aluminium is fixed at both ends. Using Euler’s formula, find its critical buckling load Pcr.
L = 5 mE = 70 GPa (aluminium)d = 25 mm
Pcr = kN
10.Column bucklingHard
A solid round column of length L made of steel is pinned at both ends. It must carry 120 kN with a factor of safety of 2.5 against buckling. Find the smallest diameter d.
P = 120 kNn = 2.5L = 1.5 mE = 200 GPa (steel)
d = mm
11.Centroid & second moment of areaMedium
A channel section lies with its open side up: a base plate 180 mm wide with two upright legs, 180 mm high overall. Base and legs are all 18 mm thick. Find the height ȳ of the centroid above the bottom edge.
b = 180 mmh = 180 mmt = 18 mm
ȳ = mm
12.Centroid & second moment of areaHard
A 200 mm × 240 mm plate has a rectangular cut-out 60 mm wide and 50 mm high, centred on the vertical centre line with its centre 96 mm above the bottom. Find the second moment of area Ix about the horizontal axis through the centroid.
b = 200 mmh = 240 mmcut-out: 60 × 50 mmhole centre: y = 96 mm
Ix = × 10⁶ mm⁴
13.Effective stress in soilMedium
For the soil profile shown, find the vertical effective stress σ′ at point X.
An 8 m thick overconsolidated clay layer has Cc = 0.4, Cr = 0.02 and e₀ = 1. At its mid-depth the effective vertical stress is 75 kPa and the preconsolidation pressure is 195 kPa. A new building adds 100 kPa of vertical stress at mid-depth. Find the primary consolidation settlement S in mm.
In a laboratory oedometer test, a clay specimen 25 mm thick, drained at the top and bottom, reaches 50% consolidation in 8 min. In the field the same clay forms a layer 10 m thick. It lies on impervious rock, with sand above it, so water drains out only at the top. How many days t does the field layer take to reach 50% consolidation?
A vertical rectangular gate 3 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of water, with its top edge 1 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
A vertical rectangular gate 1 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of glycerin, with its top edge 1.5 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
Water flows at a mean velocity of 1.7 m/s through a pipe 400 m long with an inside diameter of 50 mm. Use the Darcy friction factor f = 0.028 and g = 9.81 m/s². Find the friction head loss hf.
Two open reservoirs are joined by a pipe 150 m long with an inside diameter of 150 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.015. The water surface of the upper reservoir is 13 m above that of the lower one. The minor losses are a square-edged entrance (K = 0.5), 3 bends (K = 0.3 each), a valve (K = 10) and the exit into the lower reservoir (K = 1.0). Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the flow rate Q in L/s.
A rectangular grass-lined earth channel is 1.5 m wide. Water flows uniformly 0.8 m deep. Manning n = 0.03 and the bed slope is S = 0.003. Find the flow rate Q in m³/s.
b = 1.5 my = 0.8 mn = 0.03S = 0.003
Q = m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)Hard
A trapezoidal gravel channel with a bottom width of 5.5 m and side slopes of 2:1 (horizontal:vertical) must carry 1.6 m³/s in uniform flow at a depth of 0.5 m. Manning n = 0.025. Find the required bed slope S (in m/m).
Q = 1.6 m³/sb = 5.5 my = 0.5 mz = 2n = 0.025
S = m/m
23.Pumps & pump powerMedium
In a test, a pump delivers 30 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) against a head of 50 m while its shaft takes 18.4 kW. Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the pump efficiency η in percent.
Q = 30 L/sH = 50 mPshaft = 18.4 kWg = 9.81 m/s²
η = %
24.Pumps & pump powerHard
A pump moves 75 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) from an open lower reservoir to an upper tank whose water surface is 8 m higher. The pipe is 600 m long with an inside diameter of 200 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.02; the minor-loss coefficients add up to ΣK = 5 (entrance and exit included). Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the head H the pump must add.
You invest €20 000 at a nominal rate of 6% per year, compounded quarterly. Find the value FV of the investment after 7 years.
PV = €20 0006% / 4n = 7
FV = €
26.Time value of moneyHard
A loan of €8 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 5 years. The interest rate is 7.2% per year, compounded monthly. Find the monthly payment A.
P = €8 0007.2% / 12N = 60
A = €
27.NPV & IRRMedium
An investment of €30 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 3: €14 000, €10 000, €8 000. The cost of capital is 9%. Find the net present value NPV.
A project costs €10 000 and returns €3 000, €5 500, €5 000, €4 500 at the end of years 1 to 4. Cash flows can be reinvested at the cost of capital of 8%. Find the modified internal rate of return MIRR in percent.
X is normal with mean 60 s and standard deviation 5 s; Y is independent and normal with mean 45 s and standard deviation 4 s. Find the probability P that X + Y is more than 98.6 s. Round z to two decimals.
μX = 60, σX = 5μY = 45, σY = 4X + Y > 98.6 s
P =
30.Normal distributionHard
The heights of adult men are normally distributed with mean 178 cm and standard deviation 7 cm. Find the value x below which 80% of them lie (the 80th percentile).
μ = 178σ = 7P = 80%
x = cm
3Solutions
1.Beam support reactions
Answer: RB = 8.333 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
ΣMA = 0: RB·6 = 20·1 + 20·1.5
RB = 50/6 = 8.333 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 40 − 8.333 = 31.67 kN
Answer
RB = 8.333 kN
2.Beam support reactions
Answer: MA = 75 kN·m
Cantilever equilibrium: a fixed support can push up and also resist rotation, so it gives a vertical reaction RA and a reaction moment MA. ΣFy = 0 gives RA, and moments about the wall give MA = Σ(load × distance from the wall). A distributed load acts as its resultant at the centroid of the load diagram.
Resultant of the triangular load
W = ½·6·5 = 15 kN
x̄ = L/3 = 1.667 m
Moment about the wall
MA = W·x̄ + P·a = 15·1.667 + 20·2.5 = 75 kN·m
Answer
MA = 75 kN·m
3.Truss: method of joints
Answer: FAB = −32.45 kN
Method of joints: every pin of a truss is in equilibrium, so ΣFx = 0 and ΣFy = 0 at each joint. Start at a joint with at most two unknown member forces. A negative result means the member is in compression.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole truss. Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive.
ΣMA = 0: Cy·5 = 45·2 → Cy = 18 kN
ΣFy = 0: Ay = 45 − 18 = 27 kN
Joint A
Assume every member is in tension (pulling away from the joint). Only AB has a vertical component at A.
sin α = 3/3.606 = 0.8321
ΣFy = 0: Ay + FAB·sin α = 0
FAB = −27/0.8321 = −32.45 kN
Answer
FAB = −32.45 kN (compression)
4.Truss: method of joints
Answer: member BF
Zero-force members: at a joint, the forces must balance in every direction. If a joint has no load and no support, and two of its three members are in line, then the balance across that line involves only the third member, so its force is zero. If only two members meet at an unloaded joint and they are not in line, both are zero.
Joint B
AB and BC lie on one straight line and the joint carries no load. Balancing forces across that line leaves only BF.
ΣF⊥ = 0 → FBF = 0
Check with the method of joints
Solving all joints gives these member forces (T = tension, C = compression).
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut. An applied couple makes the bending moment diagram jump by the size of the couple.
Support reactions
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive: RB·L − M0 = 0. Vertical balance: RA + RB = 0.
RB = M0/L = 20/5 = 4 kN (upward)
RA = −RB = −4 kN (downward)
Cut just left of the couple
The left part contains only RA.
Mx = RA·a = −4·1 = −4 kN·m
Answer
Mx = −4 kN·m
6.Shear force & bending moment
Answer: Mx = 112 kN·m
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 4·8 = 32 kN, acting at x̄ = 4 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·8 = 40·4 + 4·8·4
RB = 288/8 = 36 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 72 − 36 = 36 kN
Cut at x = 4 m and keep the left part
Only forces left of the cut appear. A UDL portion acts as one force at the middle of that portion.
M = RA·x − (each load left of the cut × its distance to the cut)
Mx = 36·4 − 4·4·2 = 112 kN·m
Answer
Mx = 112 kN·m
7.Beam deflection
Answer: δmax = 44.02 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
w = 12 N/mm, L = 6000 mm
EI = 4.6 × 10¹² N·mm²
Deflection
δmax = 5wL⁴/(384EI) = 5·12·6000⁴/(384·4.6 × 10¹²) = 44.02 mm
Answer
δmax = 44.02 mm
8.Beam deflection
Answer: hreq = 221.8 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
bh³/12 = Ireq → h = (12·6.818 × 10⁷/75)1/3 = 221.8 mm
Answer
hreq = 221.8 mm
In practice, choose the next standard depth above this value.
9.Column buckling
Answer: Pcr = 2.12 kN
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Required critical load
Pcr = n·P = 2.5·120000 = 300000 N
KL = 1·1500 = 1500 mm
Solve for the diameter
d = (64·n·P·(KL)²/(π³E))^(1/4) = (64·300000·1500²/(π³·200000))^(1/4) = 51.37 mm
Answer
d = 51.37 mm
Check: the slenderness KL/r is 116.8, so the column is slender and Euler applies.
11.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: ȳ = 66.86 mm
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Split into rectangles
Take the base at full width and the two legs above it (height h − t), so nothing is counted twice.
base: A1 = 180·18 = 3240 mm², y1 = 9 mm
two legs: A2 = 2·18·162 = 5832 mm², y2 = 18 + 162/2 = 99 mm
Centroid
ȳ = (3240·9 + 5832·99)/9072 = 66.86 mm
Answer
ȳ = 66.86 mm
12.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: Ix = 227.9 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Sections with holes: treat a hole as a negative area. The centroid is ȳ = (A₁y₁ − A₂y₂)/(A₁ − A₂), with A₁, y₁ for the full plate and A₂, y₂ for the hole. For the second moment of area about the centroidal axis, use the parallel-axis theorem for each part and subtract the hole: I = (Ic1 + A₁d₁²) − (Ic2 + A₂d₂²), where d is the distance from each part's own centroid to the axis through ȳ. A rectangle has Ic = bh³/12 and a circle Ic = πd⁴/64.
Centroid
ȳ = (48000·120 − 3000·96)/(48000 − 3000) = 121.6 mm
Full plate about ȳ
200·240³/12 + 48000·−1.6² = 230.5 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Hole about ȳ
60·50³/12 + 3000·−25.6² = 2.591 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Subtract
Ix = 227.9 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Answer
Ix = 227.9 × 10⁶ mm⁴
13.Effective stress in soil
Answer: σ′ = 40.69 kPa
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·1 = 9.81 kPa
Effective stress
σ′ = σ − u = 50.5 − 9.81 = 40.69 kPa
Answer
σ′ = 40.69 kPa
14.Effective stress in soil
Answer: σ = 130 kPa
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
σ = γd·1 + γsat,sand·3 + γsat,clay·3
σ = 16·1 + 20.5·3 + 17.5·3 = 130 kPa
Answer
σ = 130 kPa
15.Consolidation settlement
Answer: S = 29.44 mm
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Compare with the preconsolidation pressure
σ′f = 75 + 100 = 175 kPa ≤ 195 kPa
Settlement
The clay stays on its recompression line.
S = Cr·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0) = 0.02·8/(1 + 1)·log₁₀(175/75) = 29.44 mm
Answer
S = 29.44 mm
16.Consolidation settlement
Answer: t = 3556 days
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Drainage paths
Hdr,lab = 25/2 = 12.5 mm = 0.0125 m
Hdr,field = 10 m
Scale the time
t = Tv·Hdr²/cv with the same T_v and cv in the lab and the field.
tfield = 8·(10/0.0125)² = 5.12 × 10⁶ min
tfield = 5.12 × 10⁶/1440 = 3556 days
Answer
t = 3556 days
17.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 77.25 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 1 + 1.5/2 = 1.75 m
A = H·b = 1.5·3 = 4.5 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1000·9.81·1.75·4.5 = 77.25 kN
Answer
F = 77.25 kN
18.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 84.98 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 1.5 + 2.5/2 = 2.75 m
A = H·b = 2.5·1 = 2.5 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1260·9.81·2.75·2.5 = 84.98 kN
Answer
F = 84.98 kN
19.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: hf = 32.99 m
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Velocity head
V²/(2g) = 1.7²/(2·9.81) = 0.1473 m
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g) = 0.028·(400/0.05)·1.7²/(2·9.81) = 32.99 m
Answer
hf = 32.99 m
20.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: Q = 53.92 L/s
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Loss coefficients
f·L/D = 0.015·150/0.15 = 15
ΣK = 0.5 + 3·0.3 + 10 + 1.0 = 12.4
Energy equation
Both surfaces are open to the air and practically at rest, so all of Δz is lost in the pipe.
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Geometry
A = b·y = 1.5·0.8 = 1.2 m²
P = b + 2y = 1.5 + 2·0.8 = 3.1 m
R = A/P = 0.3871 m
Velocity
V = (1/0.03)·0.38712/3·0.0031/2 = 0.9697 m/s
Flow rate
Q = A·V = 1.2·0.9697 = 1.164 m³/s
Answer
Q = 1.164 m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: S = 0.0004814 m/m
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Geometry
A = (b + z·y)·y = (5.5 + 2·0.5)·0.5 = 3.25 m²
P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²) = 5.5 + 2·0.5·√(1 + 2²) = 7.736 m
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = 1000·9.81·0.03·50 = 14.71 kW
Efficiency
η = Ph/Pshaft = 14.71/18.4 = 79.97%
Answer
η = 79.97%
24.Pumps & pump power
Answer: H = 26.88 m
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Both surfaces are open and practically at rest, so pressure and velocity terms drop out.
H = Δz + hL = 8 + 18.88 = 26.88 m
Answer
H = 26.88 m
25.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 30344 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Monthly rate and number of payments
i = 0.07200000000000001/12 = 0.006
N = 12·5 = 60
Payment
The present value of N equal payments A is A·(1 − (1 + i)⁻ᴺ)/i. Set it equal to the loan and solve for A.
(1 + i)−N = 0.6984
A = 8 000·0.006/(1 − 0.6984) = €159.17
Answer
A = €159.17
27.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = −2562 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of each cash flow
CF0 = −30 000
CF1/(1 + 0.09)1 = 14 000/1.09 = 12 844.04
CF2/(1 + 0.09)2 = 10 000/1.188 = 8 416.80
CF3/(1 + 0.09)3 = 8 000/1.295 = 6 177.47
Add them up
NPV = €−2 561.70
Answer
NPV = €−2 561.70
NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.
28.NPV & IRR
Answer: MIRR = 19.06 %
Modified IRR: compound every inflow forward to the end of the project at the reinvestment rate (usually the cost of capital) to get the terminal value TV. MIRR is the rate that turns the initial investment into TV: MIRR = (TV/C₀)^(1/n) − 1.
Terminal value of the inflows
3 000·1.083 = 3 779.14
5 500·1.082 = 6 415.20
5 000·1.081 = 5 400.00
4 500·1.080 = 4 500.00
TV = 20 094.34
MIRR
MIRR = (20 094.34/10 000)1/4 − 1 = 19.06%
Answer
MIRR = 19.06%
29.Normal distribution
Answer: P = 0.8413
Sums and differences of normal variables: if X and Y are independent and normal, X + Y and X − Y are normal too. Means add or subtract: E(X ± Y) = μX ± μY. Variances always add, also for a difference: Var(X ± Y) = σX² + σY², so σ = √(σX² + σY²). Standard deviations never add directly. The total of n independent items with the same distribution has mean n·μ and standard deviation σ·√n. Then standardise as usual: z = (x − mean)/σ and read Φ(z).
Distribution of the sum
μ = 105 s, σ = √(5² + 4²) = 6.403 s
Standardise
z = (98.6 − 105)/6.403 = −1
Upper tail
P = 1 − Φ(−1) = 1 − 0.1587 = 0.8413
Answer
P = 0.8413
30.Normal distribution
Answer: x = 183.9 cm
Normal distribution: convert a value x to a z-score, z = (x − μ)/σ, which counts standard deviations from the mean. A z-table (or Φ(z)) gives the area to the left of z, which is P(X < x). The area to the right is 1 − Φ(z), and the area between two values is the difference of their two areas.
z for the percentile
Φ(z) = 0.8 → z = 0.8416
Back to x
x = 178 + 0.8416·7 = 183.89 cm
Answer
x = 183.89 cm
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