laminar below Re ≈ 2000, turbulent above Re ≈ 4000
Mean velocity
V = Q/A, A = π·D²/4
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g)
Minor losses
hm = ΣK·V²/(2g)
Typical K values
entrance 0.5, exit 1.0, 90° bend ≈ 0.3
Pressure drop
Δp = ρ·g·hf
Two open reservoirs
Δz = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Free outlet
H = (1 + f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Open-channel flow (Manning)
Manning equation
V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2
Flow rate
Q = A·V
Hydraulic radius
R = A/P (P = wetted perimeter, free surface excluded)
Rectangle
A = b·y, P = b + 2y
Trapezoid (side slope z:1)
A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²)
Circular pipe, full or half full
R = D/4
Required slope
S = (n·Q/(A·R2/3))²
Pumps & pump power
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp
Shaft power
Pshaft = Ph/ηpump
Electrical power
Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor
Pump head
H = Δz + Δp/(ρ·g) + hL
System losses
hL = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Normal distribution
z-score
z = (x − μ)/σ
Below x
P(X < x) = Φ(z)
Above x
P(X > x) = 1 − Φ(z)
Between
Φ(z2) − Φ(z1)
Percentile
x = μ + z·σ
Method
Convert the value to a z-score: z = (x − μ)/σ.
Look up Φ(z), the area to the left of z.
For the area to the right use 1 − Φ(z); for an interval subtract the two left areas.
For a percentile, work backwards: find z for the area, then x = μ + z·σ.
2Practice problems
1.Beam support reactionsMedium
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RB.
L = 8 mP1 = 15 kN at 4 mP2 = 10 kN at 7 m
RB = kN
2.Beam support reactionsHard
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RB.
L = 8 mP = 30 kN at 1 mw = 8 kN/m from 4 to 8 m
RB = kN
3.Truss: method of jointsMedium
Use the method of joints to find the force FBC in member BC. Give tension as positive and compression as negative.
span = 8 mheight = 4 mB is 2 m from Avertical load = 15 kN
FBC = kN
4.Truss: method of jointsHard
Use the method of joints to find the force FAC in member AC. Give tension as positive and compression as negative.
span = 4 mheight = 3 mB is 1 m from Avertical load = 15 kNhorizontal load = 25 kN →
FAC = kN
5.Shear force & bending momentMedium
Find the bending moment Mx at the section x = 2 m from support A. Use sagging moments positive and upward shear on the left face positive.
L = 5 mw = 8 kN/m from 0 to 5 mx = 2 m
Mx = kN·m
6.Shear force & bending momentHard
The simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole span and a point load P. Find the maximum bending moment Mmax in the beam.
L = 5 mP = 65 kN at 1 mw = 4 kN/m from 0 to 5 m
Mmax = kN·m
7.Beam deflectionMedium
A cantilever carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole length. Find the deflection δ at the free end.
w = 12 kN/mL = 3 mE = 200 GPa (steel)I = 57 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δ = mm
8.Beam deflectionHard
A simply supported timber beam of rectangular section, 75 mm wide, carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole span. Its midspan deflection may not exceed span/360. Find the smallest depth hreq of the section.
w = 1 kN/mL = 6 mE = 11 GPa (timber)b = 75 mm
hreq = mm
9.Column bucklingMedium
A column of length L made of steel is fixed at both ends. Using Euler’s formula, find its critical buckling load Pcr.
L = 3 mE = 200 GPa (steel)b × h = 50 × 80 mm
Pcr = kN
10.Column bucklingHard
A solid round column of length L made of steel is fixed at the base and pinned at the top. It must carry 10 kN with a factor of safety of 2 against buckling. Find the smallest diameter d.
P = 10 kNn = 2L = 2.5 mE = 200 GPa (steel)
d = mm
11.Centroid & second moment of areaMedium
A 120 mm × 300 mm plate has a circular hole of diameter 50 mm on its vertical centre line, with its centre 90 mm above the bottom. Find the second moment of area Ix about the horizontal axis through the centroid.
b = 120 mmh = 300 mmd = 50 mmhole centre: y = 90 mm
Ix = × 10⁶ mm⁴
12.Centroid & second moment of areaHard
The T-section is used as a beam with the flange on top and carries a sagging bending moment of 40 kN·m. Find the size of the bending stress σtop at the top edge.
A 7 m thick overconsolidated clay layer has Cc = 0.5, Cr = 0.06 and e₀ = 1.2. At its mid-depth the effective vertical stress is 75 kPa and the preconsolidation pressure is 145 kPa. A new building adds 20 kPa of vertical stress at mid-depth. Find the primary consolidation settlement S in mm.
A clay layer 6 m thick has a coefficient of consolidation cv = 1 m²/year. It lies between two sand layers, so water drains out at the top and the bottom. For 60% average consolidation the time factor is Tv = 0.287. How many years t does the layer take to reach 60% consolidation?
A vertical rectangular gate 2 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of water, with its top edge 1.5 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
A vertical rectangular gate 2 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of seawater, with its top edge 0.5 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
Water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) flows at 0.9 m/s through a horizontal pipe, 500 m long, with an inside diameter of 200 mm. Use the Darcy friction factor f = 0.02 and g = 9.81 m/s². Find the pressure drop Δp over the pipe in kPa.
A pipe 100 m long with an inside diameter of 150 mm (Darcy friction factor f = 0.015) runs from an open reservoir and discharges as a free jet into the air. The minor losses are a square-edged entrance (K = 0.5), 2 bends (K = 0.3 each) and a valve (K = 10). Use g = 9.81 m/s². How far H must the reservoir surface be above the pipe outlet for a flow rate of 60 L/s?
A trapezoidal clean earth channel has a bottom width of 4.5 m and side slopes of 3:1 (horizontal:vertical). Water flows uniformly 2.1 m deep. Manning n = 0.022 and the bed slope is S = 0.002. Find the flow rate Q in m³/s.
b = 4.5 my = 2.1 mz = 3n = 0.022S = 0.002
Q = m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)Hard
A concrete sewer with an inside diameter of 600 mm (Manning n = 0.013) must reach a self-cleansing velocity of 0.6 m/s when flowing just full. Find the minimum slope S (in m/m).
D = 600 mmn = 0.013V = 0.6 m/s
S = m/m
23.Pumps & pump powerMedium
A pump delivers 30 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) against a head of 68 m. The pump efficiency is 60% and the electric motor driving it has an efficiency of 94%. Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the electrical power Pel the motor draws, in kW.
A pump moves 120 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) from an open lower reservoir to an upper tank whose water surface is 8 m higher. The pipe is 100 m long with an inside diameter of 250 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.018; the minor-loss coefficients add up to ΣK = 8 (entrance and exit included). Use g = 9.81 m/s². The upper tank is closed and the air above its water is at a gauge pressure of 350 kPa. Find the head H the pump must add.
You invest €5 000 at 4% per year with continuous compounding. Find the value FV after 12 years.
PV = €5 000r = 4%t = 12
FV = €
26.Time value of moneyHard
You save €200 at the end of every month for 12 years. The account pays 4.8% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.
A = €2004.8% / 12N = 144
FV = €
27.NPV & IRRMedium
A project costs €40 000 today and returns €14 500 at the end of each year for 6 years. The cost of capital is 8%. Assume cash flows arrive evenly through each year. Find the discounted payback period DPB in years.
A project costs €50 000 and returns €36 000, €35 000 at the end of years 1 to 2. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.
CF0 = −50 000CF1 = 36 000CF2 = 35 000
IRR = %
29.Normal distributionMedium
Drag z so that the shaded area between −z and z under the standard normal curve is 0.9500. Find z to two decimals.
A = 0.9500
z =
30.Normal distributionHard
The bag weights are normally distributed with mean 250 g and standard deviation 5 g. Drag the cut-off so the shaded top 15% is to the right of it. Find the cut-off x.
μ = 250 gσ = 5 g15%
x = g
3Solutions
1.Beam support reactions
Answer: RB = 16.25 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
ΣMA = 0: RB·8 = 15·4 + 10·7
RB = 130/8 = 16.25 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 25 − 16.25 = 8.75 kN
Answer
RB = 16.25 kN
2.Beam support reactions
Answer: RB = 27.75 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 8·4 = 32 kN, acting at x̄ = 6 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·8 = 30·1 + 8·4·6
RB = 222/8 = 27.75 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 62 − 27.75 = 34.25 kN
Answer
RB = 27.75 kN
3.Truss: method of joints
Answer: FBC = −6.76 kN
Method of joints: every pin of a truss is in equilibrium, so ΣFx = 0 and ΣFy = 0 at each joint. Start at a joint with at most two unknown member forces. A negative result means the member is in compression.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole truss. Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive.
ΣMA = 0: Cy·8 = 15·2 → Cy = 3.75 kN
ΣFy = 0: Ay = 15 − 3.75 = 11.25 kN
Joint C
The roller gives only a vertical reaction, so joint C has just two unknown member forces. Assume both in tension.
sin γ = 4/7.211 = 0.5547, cos γ = 6/7.211 = 0.8321
Method of joints: every pin of a truss is in equilibrium, so ΣFx = 0 and ΣFy = 0 at each joint. Start at a joint with at most two unknown member forces. A negative result means the member is in compression.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole truss. Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive.
ΣMA = 0: Cy·4 = 15·1 + 25·3 → Cy = 22.5 kN
ΣFy = 0: Ay = 15 − 22.5 = −7.5 kN
ΣFx = 0: Ax = −25 kN
Joint C
The roller gives only a vertical reaction, so joint C has just two unknown member forces. Assume both in tension.
sin γ = 3/4.243 = 0.7071, cos γ = 3/4.243 = 0.7071
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 8·5 = 40 kN, acting at x̄ = 2.5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·5 = 8·5·2.5
RB = 100/5 = 20 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 40 − 20 = 20 kN
Cut at x = 2 m and keep the left part
Only forces left of the cut appear. A UDL portion acts as one force at the middle of that portion.
M = RA·x − (each load left of the cut × its distance to the cut)
Mx = 20·2 − 8·2·1 = 24 kN·m
Answer
Mx = 24 kN·m
6.Shear force & bending moment
Answer: Mmax = 60 kN·m
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut. Maximum moment: since dM/dx = V, the bending moment has its peak where the shear force passes through zero, either at a point load or inside a distributed load.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 4·5 = 20 kN, acting at x̄ = 2.5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·5 = 65·1 + 4·5·2.5
RB = 115/5 = 23 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 85 − 23 = 62 kN
Where is V = 0?
V(1⁻) = RA − w·1 = 58 kN
V(1⁺) = 58 − 65 = −7 kN
The shear changes sign at the load, so the maximum is under the load.
Maximum moment
Mmax = RA·1 − w·1²/2 = 62·1 − 4·1²/2 = 60 kN·m
Answer
Mmax = 60 kN·m
It occurs at x = 1 m from A.
7.Beam deflection
Answer: δ = 10.66 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
w = 12 N/mm, L = 3000 mm
EI = 1.14 × 10¹³ N·mm²
Deflection
δ = wL⁴/(8EI) = 12·3000⁴/(8·1.14 × 10¹³) = 10.66 mm
Answer
δ = 10.66 mm
8.Beam deflection
Answer: hreq = 245.1 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
bh³/12 = Ireq → h = (12·9.205 × 10⁷/75)1/3 = 245.1 mm
Answer
hreq = 245.1 mm
In practice, choose the next standard depth above this value.
9.Column buckling
Answer: Pcr = 731.1 kN
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Smallest second moment of area
A rectangle buckles about its weak axis, using the smaller dimension cubed.
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Required critical load
Pcr = n·P = 2·10000 = 20000 N
KL = 0.7·2500 = 1750 mm
Solve for the diameter
d = (64·n·P·(KL)²/(π³E))^(1/4) = (64·20000·1750²/(π³·200000))^(1/4) = 28.2 mm
Answer
d = 28.2 mm
Check: the slenderness KL/r is 248.3, so the column is slender and Euler applies.
11.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: Ix = 262.2 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Sections with holes: treat a hole as a negative area. The centroid is ȳ = (A₁y₁ − A₂y₂)/(A₁ − A₂), with A₁, y₁ for the full plate and A₂, y₂ for the hole. For the second moment of area about the centroidal axis, use the parallel-axis theorem for each part and subtract the hole: I = (Ic1 + A₁d₁²) − (Ic2 + A₂d₂²), where d is the distance from each part's own centroid to the axis through ȳ. A rectangle has Ic = bh³/12 and a circle Ic = πd⁴/64.
Centroid
ȳ = (36000·150 − 1963·90)/(36000 − 1963) = 153.5 mm
Full plate about ȳ
120·300³/12 + 36000·−3.461² = 270.4 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Hole about ȳ
π·50⁴/64 + 1963·−63.46² = 8.214 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Subtract
Ix = 262.2 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Answer
Ix = 262.2 × 10⁶ mm⁴
12.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: σtop = 60.63 MPa
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Split into two rectangles
Measure every y from the bottom edge.
flange: Af = 200·15 = 3000 mm², yf = 300 + 15/2 = 307.5 mm
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·8 = 78.48 kPa
Effective stress
σ′ = σ − u = 179 − 78.48 = 100.5 kPa
Answer
σ′ = 100.5 kPa
14.Effective stress in soil
Answer: σ′ = 71.6 kPa
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
σ = γd·2 + γsat,sand·1 + γsat,clay·3.5
σ = 15.5·2 + 20·1 + 18.5·3.5 = 115.8 kPa
Pore water pressure
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·4.5 = 44.15 kPa
Effective stress
σ′ = σ − u = 115.8 − 44.15 = 71.6 kPa
Answer
σ′ = 71.6 kPa
15.Consolidation settlement
Answer: S = 19.6 mm
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Compare with the preconsolidation pressure
σ′f = 75 + 20 = 95 kPa ≤ 145 kPa
Settlement
The clay stays on its recompression line.
S = Cr·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0) = 0.06·7/(1 + 1.2)·log₁₀(95/75) = 19.6 mm
Answer
S = 19.6 mm
16.Consolidation settlement
Answer: t = 2.583 years
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Drainage path
Hdr = H/2 = 6/2 = 3 m
Time
t = Tv·Hdr²/cv = 0.287·3²/1 = 2.583 years
Answer
t = 2.583 years
17.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 66.22 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 1.5 + 1.5/2 = 2.25 m
A = H·b = 1.5·2 = 3 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1000·9.81·2.25·3 = 66.22 kN
Answer
F = 66.22 kN
18.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 20.11 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 0.5 + 1/2 = 1 m
A = H·b = 1·2 = 2 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1025·9.81·1·2 = 20.11 kN
Answer
F = 20.11 kN
19.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: Δp = 20.25 kPa
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Head loss
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g) = 0.02·(500/0.2)·0.9²/(2·9.81) = 2.064 m
Pressure drop
The pipe is horizontal and the velocity does not change, so the energy equation reduces to Δp = ρ·g·hf.
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Velocity
V = Q/A = 0.06/0.01767 = 3.395 m/s
V²/(2g) = 0.5876 m
Loss coefficients
f·L/D = 0.015·100/0.15 = 10
ΣK = 0.5 + 2·0.3 + 10 = 11.1
Energy equation
The outlet jet still carries its velocity head; it is not a loss but it has to be supplied.
H = (1 + 10 + 11.1)·0.5876 = 12.99 m
Answer
H = 12.99 m
21.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: Q = 54.22 m³/s
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Geometry
A = (b + z·y)·y = (4.5 + 3·2.1)·2.1 = 22.68 m²
P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²) = 4.5 + 2·2.1·√(1 + 3²) = 17.78 m
R = A/P = 1.275 m
Velocity
V = (1/0.022)·1.2752/3·0.0021/2 = 2.391 m/s
Flow rate
Q = A·V = 22.68·2.391 = 54.22 m³/s
Answer
Q = 54.22 m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: S = 0.0007634 m/m
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Hydraulic radius
R = D/4 = 0.6/4 = 0.15 m
Solve Manning for S
S = (n·V/R2/3)² = (0.013·0.6/0.2823)² = 0.0007634
Answer
S = 0.0007634
That is a fall of 0.7634 m per kilometre.
23.Pumps & pump power
Answer: Pel = 35.48 kW
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = 1000·9.81·0.03·68 = 20.01 kW
Shaft power
Pshaft = 20.01/0.6 = 33.35 kW
Electrical power
Pel = 33.35/0.94 = 35.48 kW
Answer
Pel = 35.48 kW
24.Pumps & pump power
Answer: H = 48.31 m
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Both surfaces are practically at rest, so there is no velocity head term.
H = Δz + p/(ρ·g) + hL = 8 + 35.68 + 4.63 = 48.31 m
Answer
H = 48.31 m
25.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 8080 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Exponent
r·t = 0.04·12 = 0.48
e0.48 = 1.616
Future value
FV = 5 000·1.616 = €8 080.37
Answer
FV = €8 080.37
26.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 38843 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
You paid in €28 800 yourself; the rest is interest.
27.NPV & IRR
Answer: DPB = 3.247 years
Payback period: the time until the cumulative cash flows repay the initial investment. Cash is assumed to come in evenly during each year, so the last part is a fraction of a year. The simple payback ignores the time value of money; the discounted payback period uses the discounted cash flows instead.
Discounted and cumulative cash flows
year 1: 14 500/1.08 = 13 425.93 → Σ = 13 425.93
year 2: 14 500/1.166 = 12 431.41 → Σ = 25 857.34
year 3: 14 500/1.26 = 11 510.57 → Σ = 37 367.91
year 4: 14 500/1.36 = 10 657.93 → Σ = 48 025.84
Fraction of the last year
DPB = 3 + 2 632.09/10 657.93 = 3.247
Answer
DPB = 3.247 years
The discounted payback is always longer than the simple payback (2.759 years).
28.NPV & IRR
Answer: IRR = 27.08 %
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Bracket the IRR
NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.
NPV(25%) = 1 200.00
NPV(30%) = −1 597.63
Narrow down
Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.
From an area back to z: Φ(z) is the area to the left of z. For a left-tail area A, find z with Φ(z) = A in the table. A right-tail area A means Φ(z) = 1 − A. A central area A between −z and z leaves (1 − A)/2 in each tail, so Φ(z) = (1 + A)/2. For a value x, use x = μ + zσ.
Area to the left of z
Φ(z) = (1 + 0.9500)/2 = 0.9750
Read the z-table backwards
Find 0.9750 inside the table and read off z.
z = 1.96
Answer
z = 1.96
30.Normal distribution
Answer: x = 255.2 g
From an area back to z: Φ(z) is the area to the left of z. For a left-tail area A, find z with Φ(z) = A in the table. A right-tail area A means Φ(z) = 1 − A. A central area A between −z and z leaves (1 − A)/2 in each tail, so Φ(z) = (1 + A)/2. For a value x, use x = μ + zσ.
Area to the left
Φ(z) = 0.85
z from the table
z ≈ 1.04
Back to the original units
x = 250 + 1.04·5 = 255.2 g
Answer
x = 255.2 g
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