Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.
ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)
Method
Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.
Prioritization & delegation
Method
Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.
2Practice problems
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium
Which advice is most helpful for a patient with Raynaud's phenomenon?
ARub the fingers hard with snow during an attack
BTake a decongestant tablet before going outdoors
CSoak the hands in cold water to toughen the vessels
DKeep the whole body warm, wear gloves and stop smoking
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard
Two days after a coronary stent, a patient on aspirin and ticagrelor has black, tarry stools and feels faint on standing. What should the nurse do?
AReassure the patient that iron tablets cause black stools
BStop both antiplatelet drugs permanently on the nurse's own decision
CGive a laxative and repeat the observations tomorrow
DCheck vital signs, report urgently and anticipate a blood count
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium
Which electrolyte pattern is typical of Addison's disease?
ALow potassium and low glucose
BHigh calcium and low phosphate
CLow sodium and high potassium
DHigh sodium and low potassium
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard
A patient with CKD has a potassium of 6.5 mmol/L. Which medicine combination is the most likely contributor?
AAmlodipine, simvastatin and aspirin
BRamipril, spironolactone and trimethoprim
CParacetamol (acetaminophen), omeprazole and senna
DFurosemide, salbutamol and insulin
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium
Which electrolyte problem can occur in severe acute pancreatitis?
AHypernatraemia
BHypercalcaemia
CHypocalcaemia
DHyperkalaemia
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard
An adult weighing 70 kg has 40% total body surface area burns. Using the Parkland formula, how is the first 24 hours' crystalloid usually divided?
AOne quarter in the first 8 hours from arrival, the rest over 16 hours
BAll of it in the first hour, then oral fluids only for the rest of the day
CEqual hourly amounts over 24 hours, counted from arrival at hospital
DHalf in the first 8 hours from the time of the burn, half over the next 16 hours
7.Clinical nursingMedium
A patient on peritoneal dialysis notices the drained fluid has become cloudy and has abdominal pain. What is likely?
AConstipation
BA urinary tract infection
CNormal dialysis fluid
DPeritonitis
8.Clinical nursingHard
A patient who used sildenafil the day before develops chest pain. Why is glyceryl trinitrate (GTN, nitroglycerin) normally avoided?
AThe combination causes severe hyperkalaemia
BGTN makes sildenafil toxic to the liver
CThe combination can cause a severe, dangerous fall in blood pressure
DSildenafil stops GTN from being absorbed under the tongue at all
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium
A patient had a total thyroidectomy yesterday. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor in the first days after surgery?
ASerum sodium
BSerum calcium
CSerum potassium
DSerum glucose
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard
A patient with right upper abdominal pain from gallstones now has jaundice, a total bilirubin of 4.8 mg/dL (82 µmol/L) and a raised ALP. What is the most likely cause?
AGilbert syndrome triggered by pain
BHemolysis caused by the gallstones
CUncomplicated gallbladder inflammation
DA stone blocking the common bile duct
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium
A practice gas shows PaCO₂ 51 mmHg (6.8 kPa). Use the rule that in chronic respiratory acidosis HCO₃⁻ rises by 3.5 mmol/L for every 10 mmHg that PaCO₂ is above 40, starting from HCO₃⁻ 24 mmol/L, to find the expected HCO₃⁻.
At sea level, a practice gas taken on 40% oxygen shows PaO₂ 91 mmHg (12.1 kPa) and PaCO₂ 43 mmHg (5.7 kPa). Use PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 to find the A–a gradient.
Measure the QT interval and the R–R interval on this regular lead II strip, then calculate the rate-corrected QTc with Bazett’s formula QTc = QT/√RR (both in seconds). Give the answer in seconds to three decimals.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
QTc = s
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
This patient has a pacemaker. Interpret the lead II strip. Click your answer.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
1idioventricular rhythm
2paced rhythm, failure to capture
3dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm
4junctional rhythm
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium
A nurse who usually works in obstetrics floats to an adult medical unit. Which patient is most appropriate to assign to this nurse?
AA patient with a new tracheostomy
BA patient with pneumonia who is stable on oral antibiotics
CA patient on a continuous insulin infusion for diabetic ketoacidosis
DA patient with an active upper gastrointestinal bleed
16.Prioritization & delegationHard
A dehydrated child is to receive IV fluids with added potassium. Which finding should the nurse confirm first?
AThat the child is passing urine
BThat the child’s temperature is normal
CThat the child is hungry
DThat the child can walk without help
3Solutions
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: D · Keep the whole body warm, wear gloves and stop smoking
Why this is the answer
Keeping the core and hands warm, wearing gloves and stopping smoking reduce attacks. Vasoconstrictors such as decongestants and nicotine make it worse. During an attack, gentle warming of the hands is advised.
Answer
D · Keep the whole body warm, wear gloves and stop smoking
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: D · Check vital signs, report urgently and anticipate a blood count
Why this is the answer
Melaena with postural dizziness suggests upper gastrointestinal bleeding, a risk with dual antiplatelet therapy. The nurse assesses for shock, informs the team urgently and expects bloods, a group and save (type and screen) and possibly endoscopy. Stopping antiplatelets after a stent risks stent thrombosis, so the decision belongs to the medical and cardiology team.
Answer
D · Check vital signs, report urgently and anticipate a blood count
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: C · Low sodium and high potassium
Why this is the answer
Aldosterone deficiency causes sodium loss and potassium retention, giving hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. Cortisol deficiency adds hypoglycaemia and hypotension.
Answer
C · Low sodium and high potassium
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: B · Ramipril, spironolactone and trimethoprim
Why this is the answer
ACE inhibitors and spironolactone reduce aldosterone effect, and trimethoprim blocks potassium secretion in the distal tubule. Together, in CKD, they can cause dangerous hyperkalaemia. Loop diuretics, salbutamol and insulin lower potassium.
Answer
B · Ramipril, spironolactone and trimethoprim
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: C · Hypocalcaemia
Why this is the answer
Fat necrosis releases fatty acids that bind calcium (saponification), lowering serum calcium. Hypocalcaemia is a marker of severity and can cause tetany and arrhythmias. Hypercalcaemia, on the other hand, can be a cause of pancreatitis.
Answer
C · Hypocalcaemia
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: D · Half in the first 8 hours from the time of the burn, half over the next 16 hours
Why this is the answer
Parkland gives 4 × 70 × 40 = 11 200 mL in 24 hours. Half (5600 mL) is given in the first 8 hours counted from the time of the burn, not from arrival, and the rest over 16 hours. The rate is then adjusted to urine output.
Answer
D · Half in the first 8 hours from the time of the burn, half over the next 16 hours
7.Clinical nursing
Answer: D · Peritonitis
Why this is the answer
Cloudy effluent with abdominal pain or fever suggests peritonitis, the main serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. The fluid is sent for culture and treatment started promptly.
Answer
D · Peritonitis
8.Clinical nursing
Answer: C · The combination can cause a severe, dangerous fall in blood pressure
Why this is the answer
PDE5 inhibitors such as sildenafil enhance the vasodilating effect of nitrates, which can cause profound hypotension. Patients should always be asked about these drugs before nitrates are given.
Answer
C · The combination can cause a severe, dangerous fall in blood pressure
9.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: B · Serum calcium
Why this is the answer
The parathyroid glands can be injured or removed during thyroidectomy, so parathyroid hormone falls and hypocalcemia can follow. The nurse monitors calcium and checks for tingling around the mouth, muscle cramps and Chvostek or Trousseau signs.Checked against:Hypoparathyroidism · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2026)
Answer
B · Serum calcium
10.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: D · A stone blocking the common bile duct
Why this is the answer
A gallstone in the common bile duct (choledocholithiasis) obstructs bile flow, raising conjugated bilirubin and ALP. Fever with jaundice and pain suggests cholangitis, an emergency. Simple cholecystitis usually causes only mild liver test changes.Checked against:Choledocholithiasis · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2025); Cholangitis · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2026)
Answer
D · A stone blocking the common bile duct
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: HCO₃⁻ = 27.85 mmol/L
Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.
Change in PaCO₂
|51 − 40| = 11 mmHg → 1.1 × 10 mmHg
Expected HCO₃⁻
HCO₃⁻ = 24 + 3.5·1.1 = 27.85 mmol/L
Answer
HCO₃⁻ = 27.85 mmol/L
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: A–a gradient = 140.4 mmHg
Derived values: calculated serum osmolality is 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea with all values in mmol/L (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8 with glucose and BUN in mg/dL); normal is about 275–295 mOsm/kg. The P/F ratio is PaO₂ divided by FiO₂ as a fraction. The alveolar oxygen pressure is PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 mmHg at sea level, and the A–a gradient is PAO₂ − PaO₂.
QT and QTc: the QT interval runs from the start of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. It shortens as the heart rate rises, so it is corrected for rate with the R–R interval in seconds: Bazett QTc = QT/√RR and Fridericia QTc = QT/∛RR. Bazett is the formula most textbooks use; it over-corrects at fast rates, where Fridericia is preferred. Limits differ between references: a QTc above about 0.45 s in men or 0.46 s in women is usually called prolonged, and above 0.50 s markedly prolonged.
Measure
QT = 10 × 0.04 = 0.40 s
RR = 17 × 0.04 = 0.68 s
Bazett’s formula
QTc = 0.40/√0.68 = 0.40/0.8246 = 0.485 s
Answer
QTc = 0.485 s
Above the usual limits for both men (about 0.45 s) and women (about 0.46 s): prolonged. (485 ms)
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm
Paced rhythms: a pacemaker impulse shows as a narrow vertical pacing spike. After a ventricular spike the QRS is wide (0.12 s or more), because the impulse spreads from the lead through the muscle instead of the conduction system; with right-ventricular pacing it is often mostly negative in lead II. A spike before each P wave means atrial pacing, and a dual-chamber (AV) pacemaker shows an atrial spike and a P wave, then, after the programmed AV delay, a ventricular spike and a wide QRS. Capture means every spike is followed by a depolarisation. Failure to capture is a spike without a P wave or QRS after it; failure to sense (spikes that ignore the patient’s own beats) and failure to pace (no spike when one is due) are the other classic malfunctions.
Five steps
1. Rate: R–R = 25 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 25 ≈ 60 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 1.00 s.
3. P waves: each P wave follows its own pacing spike (atrial pacing).
4. AV interval: the second spike comes 0.18 s after the first one (the programmed AV delay).
5. QRS: 0.14 s, wide, right after the second spike (ventricular pacing).
Interpretation
dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm
Answer
dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm
The paced QRS is wide by nature; do not call it a bundle branch block or a ventricular rhythm.
15.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: B · A patient with pneumonia who is stable on oral antibiotics
Why this is the answer
A float nurse should receive stable patients whose care uses general skills. A new tracheostomy, an active bleed and an insulin infusion for DKA need unit-specific experience and close monitoring.
Answer
B · A patient with pneumonia who is stable on oral antibiotics
16.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: A · That the child is passing urine
Why this is the answer
Potassium is not added to IV fluids until the child is passing urine, because poor kidney function can let potassium build up to dangerous levels.