Medical-Surgical Nursing: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 16 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Method

  1. Name the problem: pump failure, blocked artery, rhythm, clot, airway narrowing, infection or a device problem.
  2. Check the danger signs first: hypoxia, hypotension, chest pain, new confusion, a cold pulseless limb.
  3. Match the oxygen to the patient: 94–98% for most, 88–92% for those at risk of CO₂ retention.
  4. Link each drug to its test and its risk: warfarin and INR, heparin and aPTT and platelets, diuretics and potassium.
  5. Choose the safe first action, then escalate and reassess.

Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Method

  1. Check the glucose in every patient with new confusion, weakness or a seizure.
  2. Use the level of consciousness as the earliest warning of brain trouble; pupils and Cushing’s triad come late.
  3. For diabetes emergencies, separate DKA (ketones, acidosis) from HHS (very high osmolality, dehydration); give fluids first.
  4. For sodium and water, decide whether ADH is in excess (SIADH) or missing (DI), and correct chronic changes slowly.
  5. For kidney problems, sort the cause into pre-renal, intrinsic or post-renal, and watch potassium and fluid.

Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Method

  1. Ask what could be hidden: internal bleeding, infection without fever, hypoventilation behind a normal SpO₂.
  2. Use the timing after surgery to narrow the complications: bleeding in hours, chest problems in days, wound and leak problems later.
  3. For pain, assess, treat with multimodal analgesia, reassess, and monitor sedation with every opioid.
  4. For cancer patients, treat any illness during the nadir as neutropenic sepsis and know the oncological emergencies.
  5. For burns, count only partial- and full-thickness areas, start the Parkland clock at the time of the burn and titrate to urine output.

Lab values & electrolytes

Method

  1. Compare the value with the laboratory’s own reference range, then with the patient’s baseline and trend.
  2. Check the sample: hemolysis, a delay, or blood drawn near an IV can give false results.
  3. Link the value to its typical signs and to the drugs and conditions that cause it.
  4. Look for interactions: low potassium or magnesium increases digoxin toxicity; dehydration raises lithium.
  5. Act on the patient: assess, hold a drug if the level is unsafe, read back critical values and inform the prescriber.

Arterial blood gas interpretation

Normal ranges
pH 7.35–7.45, PaCO₂ 35–45 mmHg (4.7–6.0 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 22–26 mmol/L
ROME
Respiratory: PaCO₂ opposite to pH; Metabolic: HCO₃⁻ equal to pH
Winter’s formula
PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2
Metabolic alkalosis
PaCO₂ ≈ 0.7·HCO₃⁻ + 21
Anion gap
AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) ≈ 8–12
Albumin-corrected gap
AG + 2.5·(4.0 − alb g/dL) = AG + 0.25·(40 − alb g/L)
Delta ratio
(AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻)
P/F ratio
PaO₂/FiO₂
Alveolar gas equation
PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8
Serum osmolality
2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8)

Method

  1. Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
  2. Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
  3. Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
  4. In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
  5. Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.

ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)

Method

  1. Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
  2. Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
  3. P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
  4. PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
  5. QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.

Prioritization & delegation

Method

  1. Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
  2. Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
  3. Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
  4. Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
  5. For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.

2Practice problems

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium

A patient has central chest pain and a STEMI on the ECG. What does this usually require?

  1. AEmergency reperfusion, preferably by primary PCI
  2. BAdmission and a repeat ECG the next morning
  3. COral beta-blocker and discharge if pain settles
  4. DA troponin result before any treatment decision is made
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is due to start an anti-TNF biologic drug. Which screening is essential beforehand?

  1. AA sweat chloride test
  2. BAn exercise ECG test on a treadmill
  3. CA peak flow diary for a month
  4. DScreening for latent tuberculosis
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium

Why are patients on haemodialysis vaccinated against hepatitis B?

  1. AThe vaccine is needed to make the dialyser work
  2. BThe vaccine lowers the potassium level
  3. CHepatitis B vaccine improves the fistula flow
  4. DShared dialysis units carry a higher infection risk
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard

A patient who had pituitary surgery has fatigue and feels cold. TSH is low, and free T4 is low. What is the most likely cause?

  1. AOver-replacement with levothyroxine
  2. BHyperthyroidism from Graves' disease
  3. CSecondary hypothyroidism
  4. DPrimary hypothyroidism from thyroid failure
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium

Which statement about pain relief in acute pancreatitis is correct?

  1. APain relief should be withheld until the diagnosis is certain
  2. BOnly paracetamol may be given
  3. COpioids can be used, and good analgesia is a priority
  4. DOpioids must never be used in pancreatitis
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard

A patient is booked for a urea breath test for H. pylori. Which medicine should usually be stopped 2 weeks before the test?

  1. ALevothyroxine
  2. BParacetamol (acetaminophen)
  3. CAmlodipine
  4. DOmeprazole
7.Clinical nursingMedium

Which is a major risk factor for Clostridioides difficile infection?

  1. ARecent broad-spectrum antibiotic use
  2. BA diet high in fibre and fresh fruit
  3. CTaking regular paracetamol
  4. DRegular exercise
8.Clinical nursingHard

A dying patient has noisy, rattling breathing caused by secretions in the throat and is unconscious. Which approach is appropriate?

  1. AReposition, consider prescribed antisecretory drugs and support the family
  2. BBegin rapid intravenous fluids to thin and clear the secretions
  3. CStart deep oropharyngeal suctioning every 10 minutes through the night
  4. DTell the family that the patient is suffocating and needs ventilation
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium

A patient has weight loss, tremor and heat intolerance. Which thyroid test pattern fits Graves disease?

  1. ANormal TSH with a low free T4
  2. BHigh TSH with a normal free T4
  3. CHigh TSH with a low free T4
  4. DLow TSH with a high free T4
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard

A patient with C. difficile diarrhea has a white cell count of 24 × 10³/µL and a creatinine that has risen to 2.1 mg/dL (186 µmol/L). What does this indicate?

  1. AUnrelated chronic kidney disease
  2. BMild infection needing no treatment
  3. CSevere C. difficile infection
  4. DSuccessful response to treatment
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium

Practice values: Na⁺ 147 mmol/L, glucose 23.1 mmol/L and urea 10 mmol/L. Calculate the serum osmolality Osm = 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea to the nearest whole number.

Na⁺ 147 mmol/Lglucose 23.1 mmol/Lurea 10 mmol/L
Osm = mOsm/kg
12.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard
pH7.357.457.13PaCO₂mmHg354544HCO₃⁻mmol/L222614appropriate compensationadded respiratory acidosisadded respiratory alkalosis

A practice gas shows a metabolic acidosis: pH 7.13, PaCO₂ 44 mmHg (5.9 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 14 mmol/L. Compare the measured PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula. Click your interpretation.

pH 7.13PaCO₂ 44 mmHg (5.9 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 14 mmol/L
  1. 1appropriate compensation
  2. 2added respiratory acidosis
  3. 3added respiratory alkalosis
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretationMedium
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVsinus tachycardiajunctional rhythmsinus bradycardiafirst-degree AV block

Interpret this lead II rhythm strip. Which rhythm is it? Click your answer.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1sinus tachycardia
  2. 2junctional rhythm
  3. 3sinus bradycardia
  4. 4first-degree AV block
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVthird-degree (complete) AV blockdual-chamber (AV) paced rhythmsinus rhythm with wide QRSjunctional rhythm

This patient has a pacemaker. Interpret the lead II strip. Click your answer.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1third-degree (complete) AV block
  2. 2dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm
  3. 3sinus rhythm with wide QRS
  4. 4junctional rhythm
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium

Straight after birth, what is the first priority for a healthy-looking newborn?

  1. AGive the vitamin K injection before anything else is done
  2. BWeigh and measure the baby on the scale
  3. CGive the first bath to remove the blood and vernix
  4. DDry and warm the baby while checking that it is breathing
16.Prioritization & delegationHard

Several patients on a unit develop diarrhea within two days. What should the nurse do first?

  1. AWait to see if more patients become unwell
  2. BGive all patients antidiarrheal drugs without assessment
  3. CMove the affected patients into shared rooms with other patients to free up beds
  4. DPlace affected patients on contact precautions and inform infection control

3Solutions

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: A · Emergency reperfusion, preferably by primary PCI

Why this is the answer

A STEMI usually reflects total occlusion of a coronary artery. Emergency reperfusion, preferably primary PCI (or thrombolysis if PCI cannot be done in time), is needed as soon as possible; "time is muscle". The decision is made on the ECG and symptoms, not on the troponin result.

Answer

A · Emergency reperfusion, preferably by primary PCI
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: D · Screening for latent tuberculosis

Why this is the answer

TNF-alpha is essential for containing TB in granulomas. Anti-TNF drugs can reactivate latent TB, sometimes as severe disseminated disease. Patients are screened (history, chest X-ray, IGRA) and treated for latent TB before starting.

Answer

D · Screening for latent tuberculosis
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: D · Shared dialysis units carry a higher infection risk

Why this is the answer

Haemodialysis involves repeated vascular access in a shared unit, which raises the risk of blood-borne infection. Vaccination, screening and strict infection control protect patients and staff.

Answer

D · Shared dialysis units carry a higher infection risk
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: C · Secondary hypothyroidism

Why this is the answer

When the pituitary cannot make enough TSH, the thyroid is not stimulated, so both TSH and free T4 are low. In primary thyroid failure, TSH is high. In secondary hypothyroidism, free T4, not TSH, is used to guide the dose.

Answer

C · Secondary hypothyroidism
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: C · Opioids can be used, and good analgesia is a priority

Why this is the answer

Acute pancreatitis is very painful, and opioids are used as part of multimodal analgesia. There is no good evidence that they worsen the condition. Sedation and breathing are monitored.

Answer

C · Opioids can be used, and good analgesia is a priority
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: D · Omeprazole

Why this is the answer

PPIs suppress H. pylori and can give false-negative breath or stool tests, so they are usually stopped 2 weeks before. Antibiotics are usually stopped 4 weeks before testing.

Answer

D · Omeprazole
7.Clinical nursing

Answer: A · Recent broad-spectrum antibiotic use

Why this is the answer

Broad-spectrum antibiotics disrupt normal gut flora, letting C. difficile overgrow. Older age, hospital stay and proton pump inhibitors also increase the risk.

Answer

A · Recent broad-spectrum antibiotic use
8.Clinical nursing

Answer: A · Reposition, consider prescribed antisecretory drugs and support the family

Why this is the answer

The "death rattle" is managed by repositioning, mouth care and sometimes drugs that reduce secretions. Explaining it to relatives eases their distress.

Answer

A · Reposition, consider prescribed antisecretory drugs and support the family
9.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: D · Low TSH with a high free T4

Why this is the answer

In Graves disease, antibodies stimulate the thyroid to make too much hormone. The high free T4 suppresses TSH from the pituitary through negative feedback, so TSH is low. A high TSH with a low T4 fits primary hypothyroidism.Checked against: TSH test · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2026); Thyroxine (T4) Test · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2024); Graves disease · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2026)

Answer

D · Low TSH with a high free T4
10.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: C · Severe C. difficile infection

Why this is the answer

A white count of 15 × 10³/µL or more or a creatinine above 1.5 mg/dL marks severe C. difficile infection. These patients need prompt treatment, fluid replacement and close monitoring for complications such as toxic megacolon. Contact precautions with soap-and-water hand hygiene are used.

Answer

C · Severe C. difficile infection
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: Osm = 327 mOsm/kg

Derived values: calculated serum osmolality is 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea with all values in mmol/L (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8 with glucose and BUN in mg/dL); normal is about 275–295 mOsm/kg. The P/F ratio is PaO₂ divided by FiO₂ as a fraction. The alveolar oxygen pressure is PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 mmHg at sea level, and the A–a gradient is PAO₂ − PaO₂.

Calculated osmolality

Osm = 2·147 + 23.1 + 10 = 327.1 ≈ 327 mOsm/kg

Answer

Osm = 327 mOsm/kg
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: added respiratory acidosis

Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.

Expected PaCO₂

1.5·14 + 8 = 29 → 27–31 mmHg

Compare

measured: 44 mmHg → added respiratory acidosis

Answer

added respiratory acidosis
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: sinus bradycardia

Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC.

Five steps

1. Rate: R–R = 35 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 35 ≈ 43 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 1.40 s.
3. P waves: upright, one before every QRS, all alike.
4. PR interval: 0.20 s, constant, within 0.12–0.20 s.
5. QRS: 0.06 s, narrow (below 0.12 s).

Interpretation

sinus bradycardia

Answer

sinus bradycardia
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm

Paced rhythms: a pacemaker impulse shows as a narrow vertical pacing spike. After a ventricular spike the QRS is wide (0.12 s or more), because the impulse spreads from the lead through the muscle instead of the conduction system; with right-ventricular pacing it is often mostly negative in lead II. A spike before each P wave means atrial pacing, and a dual-chamber (AV) pacemaker shows an atrial spike and a P wave, then, after the programmed AV delay, a ventricular spike and a wide QRS. Capture means every spike is followed by a depolarisation. Failure to capture is a spike without a P wave or QRS after it; failure to sense (spikes that ignore the patient’s own beats) and failure to pace (no spike when one is due) are the other classic malfunctions.

Five steps

1. Rate: R–R = 24 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 24 ≈ 63 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 0.96 s.
3. P waves: each P wave follows its own pacing spike (atrial pacing).
4. AV interval: the second spike comes 0.20 s after the first one (the programmed AV delay).
5. QRS: 0.16 s, wide, right after the second spike (ventricular pacing).

Interpretation

dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm

Answer

dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm

The paced QRS is wide by nature; do not call it a bundle branch block or a ventricular rhythm.

15.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: D · Dry and warm the baby while checking that it is breathing

Why this is the answer

Breathing and keeping warm come first. Drying stimulates breathing and reduces heat loss; skin-to-skin contact helps. Weighing and routine injections can wait.

Answer

D · Dry and warm the baby while checking that it is breathing
16.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: D · Place affected patients on contact precautions and inform infection control

Why this is the answer

A cluster of diarrhea may be an outbreak, for example of C. difficile or norovirus. Contact precautions and early notification of infection control limit spread.

Answer

D · Place affected patients on contact precautions and inform infection control

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