Medical-Surgical Nursing: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 16 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

New problemsBack to the course

In the print window, choose “Save as PDF” to keep a copy on your device.

1Formulas and methods

Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Method

  1. Name the problem: pump failure, blocked artery, rhythm, clot, airway narrowing, infection or a device problem.
  2. Check the danger signs first: hypoxia, hypotension, chest pain, new confusion, a cold pulseless limb.
  3. Match the oxygen to the patient: 94–98% for most, 88–92% for those at risk of CO₂ retention.
  4. Link each drug to its test and its risk: warfarin and INR, heparin and aPTT and platelets, diuretics and potassium.
  5. Choose the safe first action, then escalate and reassess.

Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Method

  1. Check the glucose in every patient with new confusion, weakness or a seizure.
  2. Use the level of consciousness as the earliest warning of brain trouble; pupils and Cushing’s triad come late.
  3. For diabetes emergencies, separate DKA (ketones, acidosis) from HHS (very high osmolality, dehydration); give fluids first.
  4. For sodium and water, decide whether ADH is in excess (SIADH) or missing (DI), and correct chronic changes slowly.
  5. For kidney problems, sort the cause into pre-renal, intrinsic or post-renal, and watch potassium and fluid.

Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Method

  1. Ask what could be hidden: internal bleeding, infection without fever, hypoventilation behind a normal SpO₂.
  2. Use the timing after surgery to narrow the complications: bleeding in hours, chest problems in days, wound and leak problems later.
  3. For pain, assess, treat with multimodal analgesia, reassess, and monitor sedation with every opioid.
  4. For cancer patients, treat any illness during the nadir as neutropenic sepsis and know the oncological emergencies.
  5. For burns, count only partial- and full-thickness areas, start the Parkland clock at the time of the burn and titrate to urine output.

Lab values & electrolytes

Method

  1. Compare the value with the laboratory’s own reference range, then with the patient’s baseline and trend.
  2. Check the sample: hemolysis, a delay, or blood drawn near an IV can give false results.
  3. Link the value to its typical signs and to the drugs and conditions that cause it.
  4. Look for interactions: low potassium or magnesium increases digoxin toxicity; dehydration raises lithium.
  5. Act on the patient: assess, hold a drug if the level is unsafe, read back critical values and inform the prescriber.

Arterial blood gas interpretation

Normal ranges
pH 7.35–7.45, PaCO₂ 35–45 mmHg (4.7–6.0 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 22–26 mmol/L
ROME
Respiratory: PaCO₂ opposite to pH; Metabolic: HCO₃⁻ equal to pH
Winter’s formula
PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2
Metabolic alkalosis
PaCO₂ ≈ 0.7·HCO₃⁻ + 21
Anion gap
AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) ≈ 8–12
Albumin-corrected gap
AG + 2.5·(4.0 − alb g/dL) = AG + 0.25·(40 − alb g/L)
Delta ratio
(AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻)
P/F ratio
PaO₂/FiO₂
Alveolar gas equation
PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8
Serum osmolality
2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8)

Method

  1. Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
  2. Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
  3. Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
  4. In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
  5. Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.

ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)

Method

  1. Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
  2. Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
  3. P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
  4. PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
  5. QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.

Prioritization & delegation

Method

  1. Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
  2. Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
  3. Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
  4. Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
  5. For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.

2Practice problems

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium

When should an adult with cystic fibrosis take pancreatic enzyme capsules?

  1. AWith all meals and snacks that contain fat
  2. BOnce a day on waking, at least an hour before any food
  3. COnly when they have diarrhoea
  4. DOnly at bedtime
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard

After an anaphylactic reaction to a bee sting that responded to adrenaline (epinephrine), a patient asks to go home immediately. Which advice is most appropriate?

  1. AStay for observation, then go home with an adrenaline auto-injector and teaching
  2. BStay in hospital for at least two weeks on daily intravenous antihistamines
  3. CGo home straight away, because anaphylaxis never recurs once adrenaline has worked
  4. DGo home and take antihistamines only if the throat swells
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium

A patient has a homonymous hemianopia after a stroke. How should the nurse help at first?

  1. AApproach from the seeing side and teach head-turning to scan
  2. BCover the eye on the affected side with a patch
  3. CPut the call bell and drinks on the side without vision, to train it
  4. DKeep the room dark to reduce visual stimulation
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard

Which patient with a spinal cord injury is at risk of autonomic dysreflexia?

  1. AA patient with an injury at L5
  2. BA patient with an injury at T4
  3. CA patient with an injury at L3
  4. DA patient with an injury at S2
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium

What is anticipatory nausea in chemotherapy?

  1. ANausea caused by low blood glucose
  2. BNausea that starts about a week after each cycle and lasts for days
  3. CNausea triggered by reminders of treatment before it is given
  4. DNausea caused only by the smell of food
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard

Which fluid strategy is generally recommended in the first hours of acute pancreatitis?

  1. AIV albumin alone instead of any crystalloid
  2. BNo IV fluid at all, only small sips of oral water
  3. CVery large volumes, whatever the patient's response
  4. DGoal-directed balanced crystalloid, guided by the response
7.Clinical nursingMedium

A patient is receiving IV fluids for several days. Which monitoring is essential?

  1. AMonthly HbA1c
  2. BFluid balance, regular weights and urea, creatinine and electrolytes
  3. CWeekly temperature and a single blood glucose reading
  4. DPeak flow readings
8.Clinical nursingHard

An older patient found on the floor after lying there for many hours has dark brown urine and a very high creatine kinase. What is the main risk?

  1. AAcute kidney injury from rhabdomyolysis
  2. BA urinary tract infection from lying in urine
  3. CA stroke
  4. DHypoglycaemia
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium

A patient receives subcutaneous enoxaparin (a low-molecular-weight heparin). Which statement about monitoring is correct?

  1. AThe aPTT must be checked every 6 hours to adjust the dose
  2. BThe INR is used to adjust each dose, as with warfarin
  3. CNo routine aPTT; platelets and kidney function are checked instead
  4. DNo blood tests of any kind are ever needed
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard

A patient has a continuous heparin infusion for a pulmonary embolism. A new nurse plans to adjust the infusion using today's INR of 1.1. What should the experienced nurse explain?

  1. AThe INR is the correct test, and 1.1 means heparin is therapeutic
  2. BThe INR of 1.1 means the heparin rate must be doubled at once
  3. CHeparin is adjusted using the aPTT or anti-Xa level, not the INR
  4. DHeparin needs no laboratory monitoring once the infusion is started
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium

A practice gas shows a metabolic acidosis with HCO₃⁻ 14 mmol/L. Use Winter’s formula to find the expected PaCO₂ (the centre of the range) in mmHg.

HCO₃⁻ 14 mmol/L
PaCO₂ = mmHg
12.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard

At sea level, a practice gas taken on 50% oxygen shows PaO₂ 64 mmHg (8.5 kPa) and PaCO₂ 40 mmHg (5.3 kPa). Use PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 to find the A–a gradient.

FiO₂ 50%PaO₂ 64 mmHg (8.5 kPa)PaCO₂ 40 mmHg (5.3 kPa)
A–a gradient = mmHg
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretationMedium
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mV

This lead II strip shows atrial flutter with a fixed conduction ratio. Find the ventricular rate in beats per minute.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
ventricular rate = bpm
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVsecond-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)third-degree (complete) AV blockfirst-degree AV blockatrial fibrillation

This lead II strip shows a conduction problem between the atria and the ventricles. Which rhythm is it? Click your answer.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1second-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)
  2. 2third-degree (complete) AV block
  3. 3first-degree AV block
  4. 4atrial fibrillation
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium

A patient has a reddened area on the sacrum that does not blanch when pressed. What is the priority action?

  1. AKeep the patient lying on the back to protect the area
  2. BApply a heat pad to the area to increase circulation
  3. CRelieve pressure on the area by changing position regularly
  4. DMassage the area firmly to improve the blood flow to the skin
16.Prioritization & delegationHard

Which patient needs airborne precautions rather than droplet precautions?

  1. AA child with chickenpox (varicella)
  2. BA teenager with mumps
  3. CAn adult with influenza
  4. DA child with pertussis (whooping cough)

3Solutions

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: A · With all meals and snacks that contain fat

Why this is the answer

In CF, thick secretions block the pancreatic ducts, causing fat malabsorption and fatty stools. Enzyme capsules are taken with every meal and fat-containing snack, with the dose adjusted to fat intake. Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) are also supplemented.

Answer

A · With all meals and snacks that contain fat
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: A · Stay for observation, then go home with an adrenaline auto-injector and teaching

Why this is the answer

Biphasic reactions can occur hours after the first reaction resolves, so patients are observed for a period determined by severity and local guidance. Before discharge they receive adrenaline auto-injectors with training, a written plan and referral to an allergy service.

Answer

A · Stay for observation, then go home with an adrenaline auto-injector and teaching
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: A · Approach from the seeing side and teach head-turning to scan

Why this is the answer

Initially, placing important items and approaching from the side with intact vision improves safety. Over time the patient is taught to scan by turning the head towards the lost field. Patching one eye does not help, because both eyes have lost the same half-field.

Answer

A · Approach from the seeing side and teach head-turning to scan
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: B · A patient with an injury at T4

Why this is the answer

Autonomic dysreflexia usually occurs with injuries at T6 or above. Below this level, the body can still control the sympathetic response to stimuli such as a full bladder. Lumbar and sacral injuries do not usually cause it.

Answer

B · A patient with an injury at T4
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: C · Nausea triggered by reminders of treatment before it is given

Why this is the answer

Anticipatory nausea is a conditioned response after previous poorly controlled nausea, triggered by sights or smells linked to treatment. Good antiemetic control from the first cycle helps prevent it; relaxation techniques and anxiolytics may help.

Answer

C · Nausea triggered by reminders of treatment before it is given
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: D · Goal-directed balanced crystalloid, guided by the response

Why this is the answer

Pancreatitis causes fluid loss into the tissues, so early IV fluid is important. Recent guidance favours moderate, goal-directed resuscitation with balanced crystalloids such as Hartmann's or lactated Ringer's, adjusted to heart rate, blood pressure and urine output, because very aggressive fluids increase overload without benefit.

Answer

D · Goal-directed balanced crystalloid, guided by the response
7.Clinical nursing

Answer: B · Fluid balance, regular weights and urea, creatinine and electrolytes

Why this is the answer

IV fluids can cause overload or electrolyte imbalance. Fluid balance charts, weight, clinical assessment and blood tests guide the prescription.

Answer

B · Fluid balance, regular weights and urea, creatinine and electrolytes
8.Clinical nursing

Answer: A · Acute kidney injury from rhabdomyolysis

Why this is the answer

Prolonged pressure on muscles causes rhabdomyolysis, releasing myoglobin and potassium. Myoglobin can block kidney tubules; treatment includes IV fluids and close monitoring of urine output and electrolytes.

Answer

A · Acute kidney injury from rhabdomyolysis
9.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: C · No routine aPTT; platelets and kidney function are checked instead

Why this is the answer

Enoxaparin has a predictable effect, so the aPTT is not used to monitor it. Platelet counts help detect heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, and kidney function matters because the drug is cleared by the kidneys. Anti-Xa levels may be used in pregnancy, obesity or kidney disease.

Answer

C · No routine aPTT; platelets and kidney function are checked instead
10.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: C · Heparin is adjusted using the aPTT or anti-Xa level, not the INR

Why this is the answer

Unfractionated heparin infusions are adjusted using the aPTT or anti-factor Xa level according to protocol. The INR monitors warfarin and is little affected by heparin at usual doses. Using the wrong test can cause under- or over-anticoagulation.Checked against: Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) Test · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2026); Prothrombin Time Test and INR (PT/INR) · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2024)

Answer

C · Heparin is adjusted using the aPTT or anti-Xa level, not the INR
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: PaCO₂ = 29 mmHg

Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.

Winter’s formula

PaCO₂ = 1.5·14 + 8 = 29 mmHg
range: 27–31 mmHg

Answer

PaCO₂ = 29 mmHg
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: A–a gradient = 242.5 mmHg

Derived values: calculated serum osmolality is 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea with all values in mmol/L (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8 with glucose and BUN in mg/dL); normal is about 275–295 mOsm/kg. The P/F ratio is PaO₂ divided by FiO₂ as a fraction. The alveolar oxygen pressure is PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 mmHg at sea level, and the A–a gradient is PAO₂ − PaO₂.

Alveolar oxygen

PAO₂ = 0.5·713 − 40/0.8 = 356.5 − 50 = 306.5 mmHg

Gradient

A–a = 306.5 − 64 = 242.5 mmHg

Answer

A–a gradient = 242.5 mmHg
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: ventricular rate = 75 bpm

Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC.

Flutter waves

F–F = 5 small boxes = 0.20 s → 1500 ÷ 5 = 300 per minute

QRS complexes

R–R = 20 small boxes = 0.80 s → 1500 ÷ 20 = 75 per minute
conduction ratio = 300 ÷ 75 = 4:1

Answer

ventricular rate = 75 bpm
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: second-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)

AV blocks: march out the P waves and check which ones are followed by a QRS. First-degree: every P conducted, PR constant and above 0.20 s. Second-degree type I (Mobitz I, Wenckebach): the PR lengthens from beat to beat until one P wave is not conducted, then the cycle starts again (group beating). Second-degree type II (Mobitz II): the PR of the conducted beats stays constant, and P waves are suddenly not conducted; the QRS is often wide. Third-degree (complete) block: P waves and QRS complexes are each regular but independent, the PR varies at random and the atrial rate is faster than the escape rate (junctional 40–60/min with a narrow QRS, ventricular 20–40/min with a wide QRS). A 2:1 block cannot be called type I or type II from one strip.

Five steps

1. Rate: 4 QRS complexes in 6 s, × 10 = 40 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regularly irregular, the QRS complexes come in groups separated by a pause (group beating).
3. P waves: upright and regular (P–P 1.00 s, 60 per minute); one P in every 3 is not followed by a QRS.
4. PR interval: lengthens 0.20 → 0.34 s, then a P wave is not conducted.
5. QRS: 0.10 s, narrow (below 0.12 s).

Interpretation

second-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)

Answer

second-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)
15.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: C · Relieve pressure on the area by changing position regularly

Why this is the answer

Non-blanching redness is a stage 1 pressure injury. Relieving pressure through repositioning and support surfaces is the priority; massage can damage tissue further.

Answer

C · Relieve pressure on the area by changing position regularly
16.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: A · A child with chickenpox (varicella)

Why this is the answer

Varicella spreads by the airborne route (and contact), so it needs an airborne infection isolation room. Influenza, pertussis and mumps are spread mainly by droplets.

Answer

A · A child with chickenpox (varicella)

ExamProblems · examproblems.com/courses/medical-surgical-nursing