Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.
ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)
Method
Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.
Prioritization & delegation
Method
Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.
2Practice problems
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium
When should an adult with cystic fibrosis take pancreatic enzyme capsules?
AWith all meals and snacks that contain fat
BOnce a day on waking, at least an hour before any food
COnly when they have diarrhoea
DOnly at bedtime
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard
After an anaphylactic reaction to a bee sting that responded to adrenaline (epinephrine), a patient asks to go home immediately. Which advice is most appropriate?
AStay for observation, then go home with an adrenaline auto-injector and teaching
BStay in hospital for at least two weeks on daily intravenous antihistamines
CGo home straight away, because anaphylaxis never recurs once adrenaline has worked
DGo home and take antihistamines only if the throat swells
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium
A patient has a homonymous hemianopia after a stroke. How should the nurse help at first?
AApproach from the seeing side and teach head-turning to scan
BCover the eye on the affected side with a patch
CPut the call bell and drinks on the side without vision, to train it
DKeep the room dark to reduce visual stimulation
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard
Which patient with a spinal cord injury is at risk of autonomic dysreflexia?
AA patient with an injury at L5
BA patient with an injury at T4
CA patient with an injury at L3
DA patient with an injury at S2
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium
What is anticipatory nausea in chemotherapy?
ANausea caused by low blood glucose
BNausea that starts about a week after each cycle and lasts for days
CNausea triggered by reminders of treatment before it is given
DNausea caused only by the smell of food
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard
Which fluid strategy is generally recommended in the first hours of acute pancreatitis?
AIV albumin alone instead of any crystalloid
BNo IV fluid at all, only small sips of oral water
CVery large volumes, whatever the patient's response
DGoal-directed balanced crystalloid, guided by the response
7.Clinical nursingMedium
A patient is receiving IV fluids for several days. Which monitoring is essential?
AMonthly HbA1c
BFluid balance, regular weights and urea, creatinine and electrolytes
CWeekly temperature and a single blood glucose reading
DPeak flow readings
8.Clinical nursingHard
An older patient found on the floor after lying there for many hours has dark brown urine and a very high creatine kinase. What is the main risk?
AAcute kidney injury from rhabdomyolysis
BA urinary tract infection from lying in urine
CA stroke
DHypoglycaemia
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium
A patient receives subcutaneous enoxaparin (a low-molecular-weight heparin). Which statement about monitoring is correct?
AThe aPTT must be checked every 6 hours to adjust the dose
BThe INR is used to adjust each dose, as with warfarin
CNo routine aPTT; platelets and kidney function are checked instead
DNo blood tests of any kind are ever needed
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard
A patient has a continuous heparin infusion for a pulmonary embolism. A new nurse plans to adjust the infusion using today's INR of 1.1. What should the experienced nurse explain?
AThe INR is the correct test, and 1.1 means heparin is therapeutic
BThe INR of 1.1 means the heparin rate must be doubled at once
CHeparin is adjusted using the aPTT or anti-Xa level, not the INR
DHeparin needs no laboratory monitoring once the infusion is started
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium
A practice gas shows a metabolic acidosis with HCO₃⁻ 14 mmol/L. Use Winter’s formula to find the expected PaCO₂ (the centre of the range) in mmHg.
HCO₃⁻ 14 mmol/L
PaCO₂ = mmHg
12.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard
At sea level, a practice gas taken on 50% oxygen shows PaO₂ 64 mmHg (8.5 kPa) and PaCO₂ 40 mmHg (5.3 kPa). Use PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 to find the A–a gradient.
This lead II strip shows atrial flutter with a fixed conduction ratio. Find the ventricular rate in beats per minute.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
ventricular rate = bpm
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
This lead II strip shows a conduction problem between the atria and the ventricles. Which rhythm is it? Click your answer.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
1second-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)
2third-degree (complete) AV block
3first-degree AV block
4atrial fibrillation
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium
A patient has a reddened area on the sacrum that does not blanch when pressed. What is the priority action?
AKeep the patient lying on the back to protect the area
BApply a heat pad to the area to increase circulation
CRelieve pressure on the area by changing position regularly
DMassage the area firmly to improve the blood flow to the skin
16.Prioritization & delegationHard
Which patient needs airborne precautions rather than droplet precautions?
AA child with chickenpox (varicella)
BA teenager with mumps
CAn adult with influenza
DA child with pertussis (whooping cough)
3Solutions
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: A · With all meals and snacks that contain fat
Why this is the answer
In CF, thick secretions block the pancreatic ducts, causing fat malabsorption and fatty stools. Enzyme capsules are taken with every meal and fat-containing snack, with the dose adjusted to fat intake. Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) are also supplemented.
Answer
A · With all meals and snacks that contain fat
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: A · Stay for observation, then go home with an adrenaline auto-injector and teaching
Why this is the answer
Biphasic reactions can occur hours after the first reaction resolves, so patients are observed for a period determined by severity and local guidance. Before discharge they receive adrenaline auto-injectors with training, a written plan and referral to an allergy service.
Answer
A · Stay for observation, then go home with an adrenaline auto-injector and teaching
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: A · Approach from the seeing side and teach head-turning to scan
Why this is the answer
Initially, placing important items and approaching from the side with intact vision improves safety. Over time the patient is taught to scan by turning the head towards the lost field. Patching one eye does not help, because both eyes have lost the same half-field.
Answer
A · Approach from the seeing side and teach head-turning to scan
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: B · A patient with an injury at T4
Why this is the answer
Autonomic dysreflexia usually occurs with injuries at T6 or above. Below this level, the body can still control the sympathetic response to stimuli such as a full bladder. Lumbar and sacral injuries do not usually cause it.
Answer
B · A patient with an injury at T4
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: C · Nausea triggered by reminders of treatment before it is given
Why this is the answer
Anticipatory nausea is a conditioned response after previous poorly controlled nausea, triggered by sights or smells linked to treatment. Good antiemetic control from the first cycle helps prevent it; relaxation techniques and anxiolytics may help.
Answer
C · Nausea triggered by reminders of treatment before it is given
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: D · Goal-directed balanced crystalloid, guided by the response
Why this is the answer
Pancreatitis causes fluid loss into the tissues, so early IV fluid is important. Recent guidance favours moderate, goal-directed resuscitation with balanced crystalloids such as Hartmann's or lactated Ringer's, adjusted to heart rate, blood pressure and urine output, because very aggressive fluids increase overload without benefit.
Answer
D · Goal-directed balanced crystalloid, guided by the response
7.Clinical nursing
Answer: B · Fluid balance, regular weights and urea, creatinine and electrolytes
Why this is the answer
IV fluids can cause overload or electrolyte imbalance. Fluid balance charts, weight, clinical assessment and blood tests guide the prescription.
Answer
B · Fluid balance, regular weights and urea, creatinine and electrolytes
8.Clinical nursing
Answer: A · Acute kidney injury from rhabdomyolysis
Why this is the answer
Prolonged pressure on muscles causes rhabdomyolysis, releasing myoglobin and potassium. Myoglobin can block kidney tubules; treatment includes IV fluids and close monitoring of urine output and electrolytes.
Answer
A · Acute kidney injury from rhabdomyolysis
9.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: C · No routine aPTT; platelets and kidney function are checked instead
Why this is the answer
Enoxaparin has a predictable effect, so the aPTT is not used to monitor it. Platelet counts help detect heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, and kidney function matters because the drug is cleared by the kidneys. Anti-Xa levels may be used in pregnancy, obesity or kidney disease.
Answer
C · No routine aPTT; platelets and kidney function are checked instead
10.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: C · Heparin is adjusted using the aPTT or anti-Xa level, not the INR
Why this is the answer
Unfractionated heparin infusions are adjusted using the aPTT or anti-factor Xa level according to protocol. The INR monitors warfarin and is little affected by heparin at usual doses. Using the wrong test can cause under- or over-anticoagulation.Checked against:Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) Test · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2026); Prothrombin Time Test and INR (PT/INR) · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2024)
Answer
C · Heparin is adjusted using the aPTT or anti-Xa level, not the INR
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: PaCO₂ = 29 mmHg
Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.
Winter’s formula
PaCO₂ = 1.5·14 + 8 = 29 mmHg
range: 27–31 mmHg
Answer
PaCO₂ = 29 mmHg
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: A–a gradient = 242.5 mmHg
Derived values: calculated serum osmolality is 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea with all values in mmol/L (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8 with glucose and BUN in mg/dL); normal is about 275–295 mOsm/kg. The P/F ratio is PaO₂ divided by FiO₂ as a fraction. The alveolar oxygen pressure is PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 mmHg at sea level, and the A–a gradient is PAO₂ − PaO₂.
Alveolar oxygen
PAO₂ = 0.5·713 − 40/0.8 = 356.5 − 50 = 306.5 mmHg
Gradient
A–a = 306.5 − 64 = 242.5 mmHg
Answer
A–a gradient = 242.5 mmHg
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: ventricular rate = 75 bpm
Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC.
Flutter waves
F–F = 5 small boxes = 0.20 s → 1500 ÷ 5 = 300 per minute
QRS complexes
R–R = 20 small boxes = 0.80 s → 1500 ÷ 20 = 75 per minute
conduction ratio = 300 ÷ 75 = 4:1
Answer
ventricular rate = 75 bpm
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: second-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)
AV blocks: march out the P waves and check which ones are followed by a QRS. First-degree: every P conducted, PR constant and above 0.20 s. Second-degree type I (Mobitz I, Wenckebach): the PR lengthens from beat to beat until one P wave is not conducted, then the cycle starts again (group beating). Second-degree type II (Mobitz II): the PR of the conducted beats stays constant, and P waves are suddenly not conducted; the QRS is often wide. Third-degree (complete) block: P waves and QRS complexes are each regular but independent, the PR varies at random and the atrial rate is faster than the escape rate (junctional 40–60/min with a narrow QRS, ventricular 20–40/min with a wide QRS). A 2:1 block cannot be called type I or type II from one strip.
Five steps
1. Rate: 4 QRS complexes in 6 s, × 10 = 40 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regularly irregular, the QRS complexes come in groups separated by a pause (group beating).
3. P waves: upright and regular (P–P 1.00 s, 60 per minute); one P in every 3 is not followed by a QRS.
4. PR interval: lengthens 0.20 → 0.34 s, then a P wave is not conducted.
5. QRS: 0.10 s, narrow (below 0.12 s).
Interpretation
second-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)
Answer
second-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)
15.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: C · Relieve pressure on the area by changing position regularly
Why this is the answer
Non-blanching redness is a stage 1 pressure injury. Relieving pressure through repositioning and support surfaces is the priority; massage can damage tissue further.
Answer
C · Relieve pressure on the area by changing position regularly
16.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: A · A child with chickenpox (varicella)
Why this is the answer
Varicella spreads by the airborne route (and contact), so it needs an airborne infection isolation room. Influenza, pertussis and mumps are spread mainly by droplets.