Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.
ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)
Method
Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.
Prioritization & delegation
Method
Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.
2Practice problems
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium
Which position is usually best for the legs of a patient with chronic venous insufficiency and ankle swelling?
AKept still in a standing position for long periods
BHanging down over the side of the bed
CCrossed at the knees while sitting
DRaised above the level of the heart when resting
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard
A nurse is reviewing four telemetry patients. Which rhythm needs attention first?
ARepeated runs of ventricular tachycardia in a patient who feels dizzy
BRate-controlled atrial fibrillation at 82/min
CFirst-degree heart block with a stable blood pressure and no symptoms
DSinus bradycardia of 54/min in a patient who is asleep and comfortable
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium
A patient with multiple sclerosis says their symptoms get worse after a hot bath. What should the nurse explain?
AThey should take very cold baths to reverse the damage
BHot baths cause new areas of damage in the brain
CHeat can briefly worsen MS symptoms, which settle when they cool down
DThis shows that the disease has entered a new progressive stage
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard
A patient with Guillain–Barré syndrome has a blood pressure that swings between 80/50 and 190/100 mmHg and a heart rate that changes suddenly. What does this suggest?
AAutonomic dysfunction, which needs continuous cardiac monitoring
BA drug reaction that means all medicines must stop
CAnxiety that will settle with reassurance alone
DA faulty blood pressure cuff that should be replaced and the readings ignored
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium
Which advice may help reduce the risk of a parastomal hernia after stoma surgery?
AStrain hard on the toilet each day to strengthen the abdominal muscles
BDo intensive sit-ups from the first week
CAvoid heavy lifting early on and use support garments as advised
DKeep the stoma bag as full as possible
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard
A patient on immunotherapy for melanoma has six watery stools a day and abdominal cramps. What should the nurse do?
AAdvise eating more fibre and fruit to firm up the stools
BReassure that diarrhoea is normal and harmless
CEscalate urgently, as immune-related colitis is likely
DGive loperamide and review next week
7.Clinical nursingMedium
A patient with liver cirrhosis becomes confused and drowsy, with a flapping tremor of the hands. Which complication is likely?
AHepatic encephalopathy
BStroke
CAlcohol intoxication only
DHypoglycaemia caused by insulin
8.Clinical nursingHard
A patient has a full-thickness burn all the way round the forearm. Which complication must be watched for closely?
AHypoglycaemia caused by the body using glucose to heal the burn
BExcessive bleeding from the burn surface needing an urgent blood transfusion
CDelayed hair growth on the arm
DLoss of circulation to the hand as swelling builds under tight burned skin
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium
Why do patients with chronic kidney disease often have anemia?
AUremic toxins make the bone marrow produce white cells instead of red cells
BHigh potassium in kidney disease breaks down red cells
CThe kidneys make less erythropoietin, which drives red cell production
DThe damaged kidneys filter out and destroy red blood cells
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard
A woman who is 34 weeks pregnant has high blood pressure, right upper abdominal pain, a platelet count of 70 × 10³/µL, raised ALT and AST, and a raised LDH. Which condition fits best?
AAcute cholecystitis
BPhysiologic anemia of pregnancy
CGestational diabetes
DHELLP syndrome
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium
A practice arterial blood gas shows pH 7.37, PaCO₂ 65 mmHg (8.7 kPa) and HCO₃⁻ 36 mmol/L. The primary disorder is respiratory acidosis. How far is it compensated? Click your answer.
pH 7.37PaCO₂ 65 mmHg (8.7 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 36 mmol/L
1uncompensated
2partially compensated
3fully compensated
12.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard
At sea level, a practice gas taken on 35% oxygen shows PaO₂ 65 mmHg (8.7 kPa) and PaCO₂ 47 mmHg (6.3 kPa). Use PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 to find the A–a gradient.
Measure the QT interval on this lead II strip, in seconds.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
QT = s
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
This patient has a pacemaker. Interpret the lead II strip. Click your answer.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
1idioventricular rhythm
2third-degree (complete) AV block
3second-degree AV block type II
4paced rhythm, failure to capture
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium
A parent calls to say their toddler has just swallowed drain cleaner. What should the nurse advise?
AGive a large glass of fizzy drink or milk to dilute the cleaner before calling anyone
BMake the child vomit straight away to bring up the chemical
CWait to see whether the child develops any symptoms first
DDo not make the child vomit; call poison control or emergency services now
16.Prioritization & delegationHard
A 2-month-old infant has a spiral fracture of the femur. The parents say the baby rolled off the sofa. What should the nurse recognize?
AThe injury does not fit the infant’s development, so possible abuse must be reported
BA spiral fracture in an infant is always caused by birth trauma
CInfants of this age often roll off furniture and break bones in this way
DNo further action is needed once the fracture is treated
3Solutions
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: D · Raised above the level of the heart when resting
Why this is the answer
Elevating the legs above heart level reduces venous pressure and oedema. Compression therapy, walking and avoiding long periods of standing also help. By contrast, patients with arterial disease often find that lowering the legs eases pain.
Answer
D · Raised above the level of the heart when resting
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: A · Repeated runs of ventricular tachycardia in a patient who feels dizzy
Why this is the answer
Symptomatic runs of VT can degenerate into VF or pulseless VT and need immediate assessment, electrolytes and treatment. Sinus bradycardia during sleep, controlled AF and first-degree heart block with stable observations are usually not urgent.
Answer
A · Repeated runs of ventricular tachycardia in a patient who feels dizzy
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: C · Heat can briefly worsen MS symptoms, which settle when they cool down
Why this is the answer
Heat sensitivity (Uhthoff's phenomenon) is common in MS. A rise in body temperature slows conduction in demyelinated nerves and temporarily worsens symptoms. It is not a relapse, and the symptoms settle with cooling.
Answer
C · Heat can briefly worsen MS symptoms, which settle when they cool down
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: A · Autonomic dysfunction, which needs continuous cardiac monitoring
Why this is the answer
Guillain–Barré syndrome can involve autonomic nerves, causing labile blood pressure and dangerous arrhythmias. Patients need continuous ECG monitoring and close observation, often in a high-dependency setting.
Answer
A · Autonomic dysfunction, which needs continuous cardiac monitoring
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: C · Avoid heavy lifting early on and use support garments as advised
Why this is the answer
Avoiding heavy lifting in the early months, supporting the abdomen when coughing, gentle core exercises as advised by the stoma team and a healthy weight may reduce risk.
Answer
C · Avoid heavy lifting early on and use support garments as advised
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: C · Escalate urgently, as immune-related colitis is likely
Why this is the answer
Severe diarrhoea on checkpoint inhibitors suggests immune-mediated colitis, which can perforate. It needs urgent assessment, infection testing and often high-dose steroids, not only antidiarrhoeals.
Answer
C · Escalate urgently, as immune-related colitis is likely
7.Clinical nursing
Answer: A · Hepatic encephalopathy
Why this is the answer
Hepatic encephalopathy causes confusion and asterixis. Lactulose is commonly used to reduce ammonia absorption and treat precipitants such as infection or bleeding.
Answer
A · Hepatic encephalopathy
8.Clinical nursing
Answer: D · Loss of circulation to the hand as swelling builds under tight burned skin
Why this is the answer
Circumferential full-thickness burns form a tight eschar that acts like a tourniquet as oedema develops. Neurovascular checks are needed, and escharotomy may be required.
Answer
D · Loss of circulation to the hand as swelling builds under tight burned skin
9.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: C · The kidneys make less erythropoietin, which drives red cell production
Why this is the answer
Diseased kidneys produce less erythropoietin, so the marrow makes fewer red cells. Treatment can include erythropoiesis-stimulating agents and iron.Checked against:Anemia · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2026); Erythropoietin test · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2025)
Answer
C · The kidneys make less erythropoietin, which drives red cell production
10.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: D · HELLP syndrome
Why this is the answer
HELLP stands for Hemolysis (raised LDH, falling hemoglobin), Elevated Liver enzymes and Low Platelets. It is a severe form of preeclampsia that can cause liver rupture and bleeding, and it usually requires delivery.Checked against:HELLP syndrome · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2024)
Answer
D · HELLP syndrome
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: fully compensated
Reading a blood gas (ROME): first the pH: below 7.35 is acidaemia, above 7.45 alkalaemia. Then find the value that explains it. PaCO₂ (normal 35–45 mmHg, 4.7–6.0 kPa) is the respiratory part and moves Opposite to the pH in a respiratory disorder; HCO₃⁻ (normal 22–26 mmol/L) is the metabolic part and moves in the same direction as the pH (Respiratory Opposite, Metabolic Equal). The other value shows the compensation: normal means uncompensated; abnormal in the direction that pulls the pH back while the pH is still abnormal means partially compensated; a normal pH with both values abnormal means fully compensated. Ranges differ slightly between laboratories; these are practice values.
ROME, value by value
pH 7.37: within 7.35–7.45
PaCO₂ 65 mmHg: high (35–45)
HCO₃⁻ 36 mmol/L: high (22–26)
Compensation
fully compensated
Answer
fully compensated
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: A–a gradient = 125.8 mmHg
Derived values: calculated serum osmolality is 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea with all values in mmol/L (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8 with glucose and BUN in mg/dL); normal is about 275–295 mOsm/kg. The P/F ratio is PaO₂ divided by FiO₂ as a fraction. The alveolar oxygen pressure is PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 mmHg at sea level, and the A–a gradient is PAO₂ − PaO₂.
QT and QTc: the QT interval runs from the start of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. It shortens as the heart rate rises, so it is corrected for rate with the R–R interval in seconds: Bazett QTc = QT/√RR and Fridericia QTc = QT/∛RR. Bazett is the formula most textbooks use; it over-corrects at fast rates, where Fridericia is preferred. Limits differ between references: a QTc above about 0.45 s in men or 0.46 s in women is usually called prolonged, and above 0.50 s markedly prolonged.
Measure
10.5 small boxes from the start of the QRS to the end of the T wave
Convert
QT = 10.5 × 0.04 s = 0.42 s
Answer
QT = 0.42 s
A rough rule: at normal rates the QT should be less than half the R–R interval (here R–R = 1.04 s).
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: paced rhythm, failure to capture
Paced rhythms: a pacemaker impulse shows as a narrow vertical pacing spike. After a ventricular spike the QRS is wide (0.12 s or more), because the impulse spreads from the lead through the muscle instead of the conduction system; with right-ventricular pacing it is often mostly negative in lead II. A spike before each P wave means atrial pacing, and a dual-chamber (AV) pacemaker shows an atrial spike and a P wave, then, after the programmed AV delay, a ventricular spike and a wide QRS. Capture means every spike is followed by a depolarisation. Failure to capture is a spike without a P wave or QRS after it; failure to sense (spikes that ignore the patient’s own beats) and failure to pace (no spike when one is due) are the other classic malfunctions.
Five steps
1. Rate: 5 QRS complexes in 6 s, × 10 = 50 per minute.
2. Rhythm: the pacing spikes are regular (every 0.84 s), but the R–R is not, because a QRS is missing after some spikes.
3. P waves: none visible.
4. PR interval: not measurable.
5. QRS: 0.16 s and wide after the captured spikes; 2 spikes are not followed by a QRS (no capture).
Interpretation
paced rhythm, failure to capture
Answer
paced rhythm, failure to capture
Failure to capture: the pacemaker fires but the heart does not respond. Textbooks treat it as urgent to report, because the patient may depend on the pacemaker.
15.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: D · Do not make the child vomit; call poison control or emergency services now
Why this is the answer
Inducing vomiting after a corrosive is swallowed causes more burns to the throat and risks aspiration. The parent should get expert advice and emergency help at once.
Answer
D · Do not make the child vomit; call poison control or emergency services now
16.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: A · The injury does not fit the infant’s development, so possible abuse must be reported
Why this is the answer
Most 2-month-olds cannot roll, and a spiral fracture in a non-mobile infant suggests a twisting force. Nurses must report suspected abuse according to law and policy.
Answer
A · The injury does not fit the infant’s development, so possible abuse must be reported