Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.
ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)
Method
Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.
Prioritization & delegation
Method
Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.
2Practice problems
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium
How does digoxin help a patient with atrial fibrillation and heart failure?
AIt speeds conduction through the AV node to the ventricles
BIt dissolves clots that have formed in the left atrium
CIt lowers potassium to stabilise the heart
DIt slows AV node conduction and increases contractility
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard
A patient with end-stage COPD has severe breathlessness at rest despite optimal treatment and wants comfort-focused care. Which measure is recognised to help?
AHigh-flow oxygen at 15 L/min whatever the oxygen saturation is
BStopping all medicines, including inhalers
CEncouraging long walks to build fitness
DA low-dose opioid with a hand-held fan and calm positioning
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium
How does the nurse test the facial nerve (VII)?
ATouch the forehead, cheek and chin with cotton wool
BAsk the patient to stick out the tongue and move it from side to side
CShine a light in each eye and check the pupil response
DAsk them to raise the eyebrows, shut the eyes tightly and smile
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard
A patient on warfarin starts levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. What should the nurse expect to monitor more closely?
AThe blood glucose, because it may fall
BThe urine output, because it may stop
CThe INR, because it may rise
DThe potassium, because it may rise
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium
In the UK National Early Warning Score (NEWS2), what does an aggregate score of 5 or more usually trigger?
ARoutine observations once every 12 hours, with no other change in care
BDischarge planning for the next day
CAn urgent review by a clinician skilled in acute illness
DNo change unless the patient complains
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard
A patient arrives in recovery with a temperature of 35.2 °C and is shivering. What is the most appropriate action?
AStart active warming and monitor the temperature
BRemove all blankets to let the body adjust
CSend the patient to the ward to warm up there under extra blankets
DGive cold IV fluids to settle the shivering
7.Clinical nursingMedium
Why are older adults at higher risk of dehydration?
ATheir kidneys hold on to too much water
BThey always drink large amounts of tea
CTheir body water content increases with age
DTheir sense of thirst is often reduced
8.Clinical nursingHard
A patient's hypoglycaemia was caused by a sulfonylurea such as gliclazide or glipizide. Why might they need monitoring for longer than usual?
ASulfonylureas only work at night
BThe drug makes glucose tablets and drinks ineffective
CThe drug causes rebound hyperglycaemia later the same day
DSulfonylureas act for a long time, so hypoglycaemia can recur
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium
When should blood cultures be taken for a patient with suspected sepsis?
ABefore the first antibiotic dose, without delaying it much
BAfter the first three doses of antibiotics
CAt any time, since antibiotics do not affect the result
DOnly if the fever lasts more than three days
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard
A patient with heart failure takes lisinopril, spironolactone and a potassium supplement. Today the potassium is 6.0 mEq/L. What is the most likely explanation?
ALisinopril lowers potassium
BSpironolactone causes potassium loss
CSeveral medicines that raise potassium are being taken together
DPotassium supplements have no effect on the serum level
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium
A practice gas shows PaCO₂ 63 mmHg (8.4 kPa). Use the rule that in chronic respiratory acidosis HCO₃⁻ rises by 3.5 mmol/L for every 10 mmHg that PaCO₂ is above 40, starting from HCO₃⁻ 24 mmol/L, to find the expected HCO₃⁻.
Interpret this lead II rhythm strip. Which rhythm is it? Click your answer.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
1sinus bradycardia
2atrial fibrillation
3supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)
4sinus tachycardia
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
Identify the rhythm on this lead II strip. Click your answer.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
1supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)
2torsades de pointes
3ventricular fibrillation
4idioventricular rhythm
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium
A nurse gives IV morphine for severe pain. When should the nurse reassess the pain and sedation?
AAt the end of the shift
BWithin about 15–30 minutes
CAt the next routine round in four hours
DOnly when the patient asks for more
16.Prioritization & delegationHard
An older patient with heart failure is receiving a second unit of blood. She becomes breathless, with crackles in both lungs and a rising blood pressure. What is most likely happening?
AAn expected effect of the first unit
BA mild allergic reaction with hives
CHypoglycemia caused by the stored blood product
DTransfusion-associated circulatory overload
3Solutions
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: D · It slows AV node conduction and increases contractility
Why this is the answer
Digoxin inhibits the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase, raising intracellular calcium and contractility, and increases vagal tone, slowing AV conduction and the ventricular rate. It controls symptoms but does not reduce stroke risk, so anticoagulation is still needed in AF.
Answer
D · It slows AV node conduction and increases contractility
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: D · A low-dose opioid with a hand-held fan and calm positioning
Why this is the answer
Low-dose oral opioids can ease refractory breathlessness in advanced disease. A fan blowing air across the face, upright positioning, breathing techniques and anxiety management also help. Oxygen is used only if it relieves symptoms or corrects hypoxaemia.
Answer
D · A low-dose opioid with a hand-held fan and calm positioning
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: D · Ask them to raise the eyebrows, shut the eyes tightly and smile
Why this is the answer
The facial nerve moves the muscles of the face. Asking the patient to raise the eyebrows, close the eyes, puff the cheeks and smile shows any weakness. Facial sensation is carried by the trigeminal nerve.
Answer
D · Ask them to raise the eyebrows, shut the eyes tightly and smile
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: C · The INR, because it may rise
Why this is the answer
As thyroid function returns to normal, clotting factors are broken down faster, which increases the effect of warfarin. The INR is checked more often and the warfarin dose may need to be reduced.
Answer
C · The INR, because it may rise
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: C · An urgent review by a clinician skilled in acute illness
Why this is the answer
NEWS2 scores respiratory rate, SpO₂, oxygen use, BP, pulse, consciousness or new confusion, and temperature. A score of 5–6 needs an urgent response, and 7 or more an emergency response.
Answer
C · An urgent review by a clinician skilled in acute illness
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: A · Start active warming and monitor the temperature
Why this is the answer
Hypothermia increases the risk of bleeding, infection and cardiac events, and shivering increases oxygen use. Active warming with warmed fluids if needed is started, and the patient stays in recovery until temperature is acceptable.
Answer
A · Start active warming and monitor the temperature
7.Clinical nursing
Answer: D · Their sense of thirst is often reduced
Why this is the answer
With age, thirst is blunted, kidney concentrating ability falls and total body water decreases. Cognitive or physical problems can also make it harder to drink.
Answer
D · Their sense of thirst is often reduced
8.Clinical nursing
Answer: D · Sulfonylureas act for a long time, so hypoglycaemia can recur
Why this is the answer
Sulfonylureas stimulate insulin release and have a long duration of action. Hypoglycaemia can be prolonged or recur, so glucose is monitored closely after treatment.
Answer
D · Sulfonylureas act for a long time, so hypoglycaemia can recur
9.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: A · Before the first antibiotic dose, without delaying it much
Why this is the answer
Blood cultures are taken before antibiotics, because even one dose can prevent bacteria from growing and hide the cause. Antibiotics should still be started quickly, ideally within an hour.Checked against:Sepsis · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2024)
Answer
A · Before the first antibiotic dose, without delaying it much
10.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: C · Several medicines that raise potassium are being taken together
Why this is the answer
ACE inhibitors and spironolactone both make the kidneys retain potassium, and a supplement adds more. The nurse holds the supplement, informs the prescriber and checks kidney function and the ECG.Checked against:High potassium level · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2025); Spironolactone · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2018)
Answer
C · Several medicines that raise potassium are being taken together
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: HCO₃⁻ = 32.05 mmol/L
Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.
Change in PaCO₂
|63 − 40| = 23 mmHg → 2.3 × 10 mmHg
Expected HCO₃⁻
HCO₃⁻ = 24 + 3.5·2.3 = 32.05 mmol/L
Answer
HCO₃⁻ = 32.05 mmol/L
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: AGc = 20.75 mmol/L
Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.
Anion gap
AG = 138 − (106 + 17) = 15
Correction for albumin
15 + 0.25·(40 − 17) = 20.75 mmol/L
Answer
AGc = 20.75 mmol/L
Above about 12 after correction: a high anion gap.
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: sinus tachycardia
Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC.
Five steps
1. Rate: R–R = 14 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 14 ≈ 107 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 0.56 s.
3. P waves: upright, one before every QRS, all alike.
4. PR interval: 0.14 s, constant, within 0.12–0.20 s.
5. QRS: 0.08 s, narrow (below 0.12 s).
Interpretation
sinus tachycardia
Answer
sinus tachycardia
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: torsades de pointes
More ventricular rhythms: torsades de pointes is a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, usually 150–250/min, in which the wide complexes change in height and twist around the baseline, pointing up for a few beats and then down. Textbooks link it to a prolonged QT interval, and magnesium sulfate is the drug resuscitation guidelines name for it. An idioventricular rhythm is a ventricular escape rhythm: regular, wide QRS (0.12 s or more), no P waves, at 20–40/min (an accelerated idioventricular rhythm runs at 40–100/min). Monomorphic VT has identical wide complexes at more than 100/min. VF is chaotic, without any repeating complex.
Five steps
1. Rate: very fast, the complexes are about 6 small boxes apart (about 250 per minute).
2. Rhythm: fast and roughly regular, but the height and direction of the complexes change in a repeating spindle pattern.
3. P waves: none identifiable.
4. PR interval: not measurable.
5. QRS: wide and polymorphic; the complexes twist around the baseline, pointing up for a few beats and then down.
Interpretation
torsades de pointes
Answer
torsades de pointes
Torsades de pointes is a polymorphic VT linked to a prolonged QT interval. This is identification practice only.
15.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: B · Within about 15–30 minutes
Why this is the answer
IV opioids act within minutes, so the nurse reassesses pain, sedation and breathing within about 15–30 minutes. Oral analgesics are usually reassessed later, after about an hour.
Answer
B · Within about 15–30 minutes
16.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: D · Transfusion-associated circulatory overload
Why this is the answer
Breathlessness, crackles and hypertension during a transfusion in a patient with heart failure suggest circulatory overload. The nurse stops the transfusion, sits the patient up, gives oxygen as prescribed and informs the provider, who may prescribe a diuretic.