Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.
ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)
Method
Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.
Prioritization & delegation
Method
Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.
2Practice problems
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium
A woman with hypertension who takes lisinopril says she is planning a pregnancy. What should the nurse advise?
AContinue lisinopril, as it is the safest blood pressure drug in pregnancy
BStop all blood pressure treatment straight away without telling anyone
CDiscuss switching medicine with the prescriber before trying to conceive
DDouble the dose to protect the baby from high blood pressure
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard
A nurse reviews inhaler use with a patient who has asthma and uses a separate steroid preventer inhaler and a salbutamol reliever. Which statement shows a need for further teaching?
A"I use my steroid inhaler every day, even when I feel well."
B"I use my steroid inhaler when I start to wheeze."
C"I carry my blue reliever inhaler with me."
D"I rinse my mouth after the steroid inhaler."
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium
Why are patients on haemodialysis vaccinated against hepatitis B?
AThe vaccine lowers the potassium level
BHepatitis B vaccine improves the fistula flow
CShared dialysis units carry a higher infection risk
DThe vaccine is needed to make the dialyser work
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard
Why may HbA1c be unreliable in a patient with haemolytic anaemia or a recent large blood transfusion?
AIt depends on how long red blood cells survive in the blood
BBlood transfusions contain large amounts of glucose
CThe test only measures the glucose in the plasma, not in the cells
DAnaemia always makes the HbA1c very high
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium
Which dressing is generally suitable for a wound with heavy exudate?
AA hydrogel sheet
BDry gauze changed weekly
CA thin transparent film
DAn alginate or foam
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard
Four hours after surgery, a catheterised patient's urine output has been 10 mL/h for two hours. Vital signs are stable. What should the nurse check first?
AThe time the patient last ate
BWhether the patient wants a cup of tea
CThat the catheter and tubing are not kinked or blocked
DYesterday's chest X-ray and blood gas results
7.Clinical nursingMedium
A patient started on an ACE inhibitor develops a persistent dry cough. What is the likely cause?
AAn allergic reaction to a recently given penicillin
BA recognised side effect of the ACE inhibitor
CPulmonary embolism
DAsthma caused by a beta-blocker
8.Clinical nursingHard
A patient with myasthenia gravis develops increasing difficulty swallowing and weak, shallow breathing. What is the main danger?
ARespiratory failure from a myasthenic crisis
BA sudden rise in blood glucose from the stress
CA urinary tract infection
DSevere hypertension from anxiety
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium
A trauma patient receives 2 L of IV crystalloid. The hemoglobin falls from 13.0 to 11.4 g/dL (130 to 114 g/L), and the vital signs are now stable. Which explanation is most likely?
AIncreased red cell production
BA laboratory error in the first sample
CA sudden failure of the bone marrow
DDilution of the blood by the IV fluid
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard
A patient’s potassium has been 3.4–3.6 mEq/L for months, and a single result today is 5.4 mEq/L. The patient feels well and the ECG is normal. What is the best next step?
ACheck how the sample was taken, assess the patient and repeat the test
BIgnore the result, because the patient feels well
CStop all of the patient’s regular medicines
DStart a potassium binder immediately without further checks
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium
Practice values: Na⁺ 144 mmol/L, glucose 30.4 mmol/L and urea 19.9 mmol/L. Calculate the serum osmolality Osm = 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea to the nearest whole number.
Na⁺ 144 mmol/Lglucose 30.4 mmol/Lurea 19.9 mmol/L
Osm = mOsm/kg
12.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard
A practice gas shows a respiratory acidosis: pH 7.32, PaCO₂ 71 mmHg (9.5 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 35 mmol/L. Use the rules ‘HCO₃⁻ rises 1 mmol/L per 10 mmHg (acute) or 3.5 mmol/L per 10 mmHg (chronic)’ to classify it. Click your answer.
pH 7.32PaCO₂ 71 mmHg (9.5 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 35 mmol/L
1acute
2chronic
3acute on chronic
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretationMedium
This lead II strip shows atrial flutter. How many flutter waves per QRS complex are there (the n of n:1 conduction)?
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
flutter waves per QRS =
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
Interpret this lead II strip. Which interpretation can you defend from this single strip? Click your answer.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
1third-degree (complete) AV block
2second-degree AV block type II
3first-degree AV block
42:1 AV block (type undetermined)
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium
On a postpartum unit, which patient is the most appropriate to assign to an LPN/LVN?
AOne hour after birth with heavy bleeding and a boggy uterus
BA new admission transferred from the labor ward with a fever of 38.6 °C
CSevere pre-eclampsia on a magnesium sulfate infusion
DDay 1 after an uncomplicated vaginal birth, stable vital signs
16.Prioritization & delegationHard
Several patients on a unit develop diarrhea within two days. What should the nurse do first?
APlace affected patients on contact precautions and inform infection control
BWait to see if more patients become unwell
CGive all patients antidiarrheal drugs without assessment
DMove the affected patients into shared rooms with other patients to free up beds
3Solutions
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: C · Discuss switching medicine with the prescriber before trying to conceive
Why this is the answer
ACE inhibitors and ARBs are contraindicated in pregnancy because they can damage fetal kidneys and cause other harm. Women of childbearing age should be counselled and switched to a suitable alternative, such as labetalol or nifedipine, before conception or as soon as pregnancy is confirmed.
Answer
C · Discuss switching medicine with the prescriber before trying to conceive
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: B · "I use my steroid inhaler when I start to wheeze."
Why this is the answer
Inhaled corticosteroids are preventers that reduce airway inflammation over days to weeks and must be taken regularly. They do not relieve an acute wheeze. Unless the patient has a combined reliever and maintenance regimen, a short-acting bronchodilator is used for symptoms.
Answer
B · "I use my steroid inhaler when I start to wheeze."
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: C · Shared dialysis units carry a higher infection risk
Why this is the answer
Haemodialysis involves repeated vascular access in a shared unit, which raises the risk of blood-borne infection. Vaccination, screening and strict infection control protect patients and staff.
Answer
C · Shared dialysis units carry a higher infection risk
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: A · It depends on how long red blood cells survive in the blood
Why this is the answer
HbA1c reflects glucose exposure over the lifespan of red cells. If red cells are destroyed early, or donor cells are added, the result may not match true average glucose. Glucose monitoring or other tests may be used instead.
Answer
A · It depends on how long red blood cells survive in the blood
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: D · An alginate or foam
Why this is the answer
Alginates and foams absorb large amounts of exudate. Hydrogels add moisture to dry wounds, films suit superficial wounds with little exudate and dry gauze sticks to the wound bed. The surrounding skin is protected from maceration.
Answer
D · An alginate or foam
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: C · That the catheter and tubing are not kinked or blocked
Why this is the answer
A sudden low output may be due to a kinked tube or blocked catheter. If drainage is normal, hypovolaemia or kidney injury is considered and the team is informed, with a fluid assessment.
Answer
C · That the catheter and tubing are not kinked or blocked
7.Clinical nursing
Answer: B · A recognised side effect of the ACE inhibitor
Why this is the answer
Dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors such as ramipril. An angiotensin II receptor blocker is often substituted.
Answer
B · A recognised side effect of the ACE inhibitor
8.Clinical nursing
Answer: A · Respiratory failure from a myasthenic crisis
Why this is the answer
In a myasthenic crisis, weakness of respiratory and bulbar muscles can cause aspiration and respiratory failure. Breathing function is monitored closely and ventilation may be needed.
Answer
A · Respiratory failure from a myasthenic crisis
9.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: D · Dilution of the blood by the IV fluid
Why this is the answer
IV fluids dilute the blood, so the hemoglobin falls even without further bleeding. Ongoing bleeding must still be considered, so vital signs, wounds and repeat hemoglobin values are monitored.
Answer
D · Dilution of the blood by the IV fluid
10.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: A · Check how the sample was taken, assess the patient and repeat the test
Why this is the answer
A sudden isolated rise may be a true change, for example from a new drug or kidney injury, or a sample problem such as hemolysis or a delay before processing. The nurse assesses the patient, informs the provider and arranges a repeat test.Checked against:Hyperkalemia · StatPearls (NCBI Bookshelf) (2025)
Answer
A · Check how the sample was taken, assess the patient and repeat the test
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: Osm = 338 mOsm/kg
Derived values: calculated serum osmolality is 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea with all values in mmol/L (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8 with glucose and BUN in mg/dL); normal is about 275–295 mOsm/kg. The P/F ratio is PaO₂ divided by FiO₂ as a fraction. The alveolar oxygen pressure is PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 mmHg at sea level, and the A–a gradient is PAO₂ − PaO₂.
Calculated osmolality
Osm = 2·144 + 30.4 + 19.9 = 338.3 ≈ 338 mOsm/kg
Answer
Osm = 338 mOsm/kg
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: chronic
Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.
Expected HCO₃⁻
acute: 24 + 1·3.1 = 27.1 mmol/L
chronic: 24 + 3.5·3.1 = 34.85 mmol/L
Compare
measured: 35 mmol/L → chronic
Answer
chronic
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: flutter waves per QRS = 3
Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC.
Flutter waves
F–F = 5 small boxes = 0.20 s → 1500 ÷ 5 = 300 per minute
QRS complexes
R–R = 15 small boxes = 0.60 s → 1500 ÷ 15 = 100 per minute
conduction ratio = 300 ÷ 100 = 3:1
Answer
flutter waves per QRS = 3
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: 2:1 AV block (type undetermined)
2:1 AV block: with two P waves for every QRS, no two conducted P waves follow each other, so you cannot see whether the PR would lengthen (type I) or stay constant (type II) before a non-conducted P wave. From one strip it is called a 2:1 AV block; a longer strip or a change in the conduction ratio decides the type. A narrow QRS makes type I more likely and a wide QRS type II, but neither proves it.
Five steps
1. Rate: R–R = 38 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 38 ≈ 39 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 1.52 s.
3. P waves: upright and regular (P–P 0.76 s, 79 per minute), two for every QRS.
4. PR interval: constant at 0.16 s in the conducted beats.
5. QRS: 0.06 s, narrow (below 0.12 s).
Why the type stays open
Every second P wave is not conducted, so no two conducted beats follow each other and a lengthening PR could never show.
2:1 AV block (type undetermined)
Answer
2:1 AV block (type undetermined)
A narrow QRS makes type I more likely and a wide QRS type II, but only a longer strip or a change in the conduction ratio decides.
15.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: D · Day 1 after an uncomplicated vaginal birth, stable vital signs
Why this is the answer
A stable patient after an uncomplicated birth fits the LPN/LVN role. Heavy bleeding, magnesium infusions and new admissions with fever need RN assessment.
Answer
D · Day 1 after an uncomplicated vaginal birth, stable vital signs
16.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: A · Place affected patients on contact precautions and inform infection control
Why this is the answer
A cluster of diarrhea may be an outbreak, for example of C. difficile or norovirus. Contact precautions and early notification of infection control limit spread.
Answer
A · Place affected patients on contact precautions and inform infection control