Medical-Surgical Nursing: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 16 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Method

  1. Name the problem: pump failure, blocked artery, rhythm, clot, airway narrowing, infection or a device problem.
  2. Check the danger signs first: hypoxia, hypotension, chest pain, new confusion, a cold pulseless limb.
  3. Match the oxygen to the patient: 94–98% for most, 88–92% for those at risk of CO₂ retention.
  4. Link each drug to its test and its risk: warfarin and INR, heparin and aPTT and platelets, diuretics and potassium.
  5. Choose the safe first action, then escalate and reassess.

Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Method

  1. Check the glucose in every patient with new confusion, weakness or a seizure.
  2. Use the level of consciousness as the earliest warning of brain trouble; pupils and Cushing’s triad come late.
  3. For diabetes emergencies, separate DKA (ketones, acidosis) from HHS (very high osmolality, dehydration); give fluids first.
  4. For sodium and water, decide whether ADH is in excess (SIADH) or missing (DI), and correct chronic changes slowly.
  5. For kidney problems, sort the cause into pre-renal, intrinsic or post-renal, and watch potassium and fluid.

Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Method

  1. Ask what could be hidden: internal bleeding, infection without fever, hypoventilation behind a normal SpO₂.
  2. Use the timing after surgery to narrow the complications: bleeding in hours, chest problems in days, wound and leak problems later.
  3. For pain, assess, treat with multimodal analgesia, reassess, and monitor sedation with every opioid.
  4. For cancer patients, treat any illness during the nadir as neutropenic sepsis and know the oncological emergencies.
  5. For burns, count only partial- and full-thickness areas, start the Parkland clock at the time of the burn and titrate to urine output.

Lab values & electrolytes

Method

  1. Compare the value with the laboratory’s own reference range, then with the patient’s baseline and trend.
  2. Check the sample: hemolysis, a delay, or blood drawn near an IV can give false results.
  3. Link the value to its typical signs and to the drugs and conditions that cause it.
  4. Look for interactions: low potassium or magnesium increases digoxin toxicity; dehydration raises lithium.
  5. Act on the patient: assess, hold a drug if the level is unsafe, read back critical values and inform the prescriber.

Arterial blood gas interpretation

Normal ranges
pH 7.35–7.45, PaCO₂ 35–45 mmHg (4.7–6.0 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 22–26 mmol/L
ROME
Respiratory: PaCO₂ opposite to pH; Metabolic: HCO₃⁻ equal to pH
Winter’s formula
PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2
Metabolic alkalosis
PaCO₂ ≈ 0.7·HCO₃⁻ + 21
Anion gap
AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) ≈ 8–12
Albumin-corrected gap
AG + 2.5·(4.0 − alb g/dL) = AG + 0.25·(40 − alb g/L)
Delta ratio
(AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻)
P/F ratio
PaO₂/FiO₂
Alveolar gas equation
PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8
Serum osmolality
2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8)

Method

  1. Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
  2. Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
  3. Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
  4. In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
  5. Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.

ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)

Method

  1. Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
  2. Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
  3. P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
  4. PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
  5. QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.

Prioritization & delegation

Method

  1. Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
  2. Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
  3. Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
  4. Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
  5. For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.

2Practice problems

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium

Two days after a myocardial infarction, a patient develops sudden breathlessness, crackles and a new loud systolic murmur. Which complication should be suspected?

  1. AA pulmonary embolism caused by prolonged bed rest
  2. BPapillary muscle rupture with acute mitral regurgitation
  3. CA new episode of stable angina brought on by stress
  4. DPost-infarction pericarditis causing a pericardial friction rub
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard

A patient who has had a total laryngectomy becomes breathless and needs oxygen. How should it be given?

  1. AVia nasal cannula at 2 L/min
  2. BVia a mask or humidified device over the neck stoma
  3. CVia a standard face mask over the nose and mouth
  4. DVia a non-rebreather mask over the mouth only
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium

A patient with advanced CKD asks how to manage indigestion. Which option should they avoid?

  1. AEating smaller, more frequent meals
  2. BRaising the head of the bed at night
  3. CAvoiding large meals late in the evening
  4. DMagnesium-containing antacids
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard

During an alteplase infusion for stroke, the patient develops a severe headache, vomiting and a falling GCS. What should the nurse do first?

  1. AGive an antiemetic and recheck the GCS in an hour's time
  2. BSpeed up the infusion so that it finishes sooner
  3. CStop the infusion and call the stroke team urgently
  4. DGive a sedative to settle the patient and continue
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium

Why are urinary catheters removed as early as possible after surgery?

  1. ABecause patients cannot drink normally while a catheter is in place
  2. BTo reduce the risk of catheter-associated infection
  3. CBecause the catheter stops the bowel working
  4. DBecause catheters always cause kidney stones
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard

Which patient has the highest risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting?

  1. AA smoker who has never had nausea after surgery
  2. BA man with no history of nausea having local anaesthetic only
  3. CA non-smoking woman with motion sickness who will need opioids
  4. DA male smoker having a short procedure without opioids
7.Clinical nursingMedium

Which measure helps reduce the risk of surgical site infection?

  1. ALeaving the patient cool during surgery to slow bacterial growth
  2. BShaving the area with a razor the night before surgery
  3. CRemoving hair, if needed, with clippers rather than a razor
  4. DChanging the wound dressing every hour
8.Clinical nursingHard

Which drug group is first-line for a prolonged convulsive seizure?

  1. ABeta-blockers, such as bisoprolol or atenolol
  2. BOpioids, such as morphine or diamorphine, given intravenously
  3. CAntihistamines, such as chlorphenamine
  4. DBenzodiazepines, such as buccal midazolam or IV lorazepam
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium

Why can a patient with liver failure have a raised INR without taking warfarin?

  1. AThe liver makes most clotting factors, so production falls
  2. BAlbumin is a clotting factor, and its level falls
  3. CThe kidneys stop clearing the clotting factors from the blood
  4. DBilirubin directly destroys the clotting factors
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard

A patient has painless jaundice, itching, dark urine and pale stools. ALP is markedly raised, conjugated (direct) bilirubin is high and ALT is only mildly raised. What is the most likely cause?

  1. AGilbert syndrome, a harmless inherited bilirubin disorder
  2. BBlockage of bile flow, for example by a tumor in the bile duct
  3. CIncreased breakdown of red blood cells (hemolytic anemia)
  4. DAcute viral hepatitis with widespread liver cell damage
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium

A practice gas shows PaCO₂ 48 mmHg (6.4 kPa). Use the rule that in chronic respiratory acidosis HCO₃⁻ rises by 3.5 mmol/L for every 10 mmHg that PaCO₂ is above 40, starting from HCO₃⁻ 24 mmol/L, to find the expected HCO₃⁻.

PaCO₂ 48 mmHg (6.4 kPa)baseline: 40 mmHg, 24 mmol/L
HCO₃⁻ = mmol/L
12.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard
pH7.357.457.19PaCO₂mmHg354576HCO₃⁻mmol/L222628acutechronicacute on chronic

A practice gas shows a respiratory acidosis: pH 7.19, PaCO₂ 76 mmHg (10.1 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 28 mmol/L. Use the rules ‘HCO₃⁻ rises 1 mmol/L per 10 mmHg (acute) or 3.5 mmol/L per 10 mmHg (chronic)’ to classify it. Click your answer.

pH 7.19PaCO₂ 76 mmHg (10.1 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 28 mmol/L
  1. 1acute
  2. 2chronic
  3. 3acute on chronic
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretationMedium
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVjunctional rhythmatrial fibrillationnormal sinus rhythmfirst-degree AV block

Interpret this lead II rhythm strip. Which rhythm is it? Click your answer.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1junctional rhythm
  2. 2atrial fibrillation
  3. 3normal sinus rhythm
  4. 4first-degree AV block
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVraterhythmP wavesPR intervalQRS duration

Interpret this lead II strip with the five steps in order: rate, rhythm, P waves, PR interval, QRS duration. At which step do you find the first abnormal finding? Click it.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1rate
  2. 2rhythm
  3. 3P waves
  4. 4PR interval
  5. 5QRS duration
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium

Which task is most appropriate for the RN to delegate to an LPN/LVN?

  1. ADoing the admission assessment of a new patient
  2. BStarting the first unit of red blood cells
  3. CInserting an indwelling urinary catheter in a stable patient
  4. DGiving discharge teaching to a patient newly started on insulin
16.Prioritization & delegationHard

Which delegation is appropriate for a nursing assistant?

  1. AChecking a newly placed nasogastric tube before the first feed
  2. BCollecting a routine urine specimen from a stable patient
  3. CGiving the first meal to a patient whose swallowing has not yet been screened after a stroke
  4. DMonitoring a patient during the first 15 minutes of a blood transfusion

3Solutions

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: B · Papillary muscle rupture with acute mitral regurgitation

Why this is the answer

Rupture of a papillary muscle (or of the ventricular septum) after MI produces a new murmur and sudden heart failure or shock. This is a surgical emergency. Pericarditis causes pleuritic chest pain and a friction rub rather than acute pulmonary oedema with a new murmur.

Answer

B · Papillary muscle rupture with acute mitral regurgitation
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: B · Via a mask or humidified device over the neck stoma

Why this is the answer

A total laryngectomy separates the trachea from the upper airway, so the patient breathes only through the neck stoma. Oxygen and any rescue breaths must be given via the stoma. These patients are "neck breathers" and often carry an alert card.

Answer

B · Via a mask or humidified device over the neck stoma
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: D · Magnesium-containing antacids

Why this is the answer

Magnesium and aluminium are excreted by the kidneys and can accumulate in kidney failure. Patients with CKD should check with a pharmacist before using over-the-counter remedies, including laxatives and NSAIDs.

Answer

D · Magnesium-containing antacids
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: C · Stop the infusion and call the stroke team urgently

Why this is the answer

New headache, vomiting, hypertension or neurological deterioration during or after thrombolysis may indicate symptomatic intracranial haemorrhage. The infusion is stopped, urgent medical review arranged and an urgent CT scan and coagulation tests anticipated.

Answer

C · Stop the infusion and call the stroke team urgently
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: B · To reduce the risk of catheter-associated infection

Why this is the answer

The risk of catheter-associated urinary tract infection increases with duration. Daily review of the need for a catheter, and early removal, reduce infection and help mobilisation.

Answer

B · To reduce the risk of catheter-associated infection
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: C · A non-smoking woman with motion sickness who will need opioids

Why this is the answer

Apfel risk factors are female sex, non-smoking status, a history of PONV or motion sickness, and postoperative opioids. Patients with more factors receive more preventive antiemetics.

Answer

C · A non-smoking woman with motion sickness who will need opioids
7.Clinical nursing

Answer: C · Removing hair, if needed, with clippers rather than a razor

Why this is the answer

Razors cause micro-abrasions that increase infection risk, so hair is removed only if necessary with clippers just before surgery. Keeping patients warm and good skin preparation also help.

Answer

C · Removing hair, if needed, with clippers rather than a razor
8.Clinical nursing

Answer: D · Benzodiazepines, such as buccal midazolam or IV lorazepam

Why this is the answer

Benzodiazepines enhance GABA and are first-line for seizures lasting over five minutes. If seizures continue, second-line antiepileptic drugs are given and senior help is needed.

Answer

D · Benzodiazepines, such as buccal midazolam or IV lorazepam
9.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: A · The liver makes most clotting factors, so production falls

Why this is the answer

The liver makes most clotting factors, including the vitamin K–dependent ones. In severe liver disease their production falls, so the INR rises. A raised INR is one of the markers of how severe liver failure is.

Answer

A · The liver makes most clotting factors, so production falls
10.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: B · Blockage of bile flow, for example by a tumor in the bile duct

Why this is the answer

In obstruction, conjugated bilirubin backs up into the blood and is passed in the urine, making it dark, while stools are pale and ALP rises. Hemolysis and Gilbert syndrome raise unconjugated bilirubin; hepatitis raises ALT much more.

Answer

B · Blockage of bile flow, for example by a tumor in the bile duct
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: HCO₃⁻ = 26.8 mmol/L

Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.

Change in PaCO₂

|48 − 40| = 8 mmHg → 0.8 × 10 mmHg

Expected HCO₃⁻

HCO₃⁻ = 24 + 3.5·0.8 = 26.8 mmol/L

Answer

HCO₃⁻ = 26.8 mmol/L
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: acute

Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.

Expected HCO₃⁻

acute: 24 + 1·3.6 = 27.6 mmol/L
chronic: 24 + 3.5·3.6 = 36.6 mmol/L

Compare

measured: 28 mmol/L → acute

Answer

acute
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: junctional rhythm

Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC.

Five steps

1. Rate: R–R = 36 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 36 ≈ 42 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 1.44 s.
3. P waves: none visible.
4. PR interval: not measurable.
5. QRS: 0.06 s, narrow (below 0.12 s).

Interpretation

junctional rhythm

Answer

junctional rhythm
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: PR interval

Five steps for every strip: 1. rate (300 or 1500 method, or the 6-second method if irregular); 2. rhythm: are the R–R intervals equal; 3. P waves: present, upright in lead II, one before every QRS and all alike; 4. PR interval: 0.12–0.20 s and constant; 5. QRS duration: below 0.12 s. Only after the five steps name the rhythm. Normal sinus rhythm passes all five: 60–100/min, regular, upright P before every QRS, PR 0.12–0.20 s, QRS below 0.12 s.

Five steps

1. Rate: R–R = 20 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 20 ≈ 75 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 0.80 s.
3. P waves: upright, one before every QRS, all alike.
4. PR interval: 0.30 s, constant, longer than 0.20 s.
5. QRS: 0.08 s, narrow (below 0.12 s).

First abnormal step

PR interval → first-degree AV block

Answer

PR interval
15.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: C · Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter in a stable patient

Why this is the answer

Inserting a catheter in a stable patient is a skill commonly within LPN/LVN scope. Admission assessment, initial teaching and starting a transfusion usually stay with the RN. Exact scope differs by state and country.

Answer

C · Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter in a stable patient
16.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: B · Collecting a routine urine specimen from a stable patient

Why this is the answer

Collecting a routine urine sample from a stable patient is predictable and delegable. Confirming tube placement, feeding before a swallow screen and monitoring the start of a transfusion all need nursing assessment.

Answer

B · Collecting a routine urine specimen from a stable patient

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