Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.
ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)
Method
Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.
Prioritization & delegation
Method
Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.
2Practice problems
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium
Two days after a myocardial infarction, a patient develops sudden breathlessness, crackles and a new loud systolic murmur. Which complication should be suspected?
AA pulmonary embolism caused by prolonged bed rest
BPapillary muscle rupture with acute mitral regurgitation
CA new episode of stable angina brought on by stress
DPost-infarction pericarditis causing a pericardial friction rub
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard
A patient who has had a total laryngectomy becomes breathless and needs oxygen. How should it be given?
AVia nasal cannula at 2 L/min
BVia a mask or humidified device over the neck stoma
CVia a standard face mask over the nose and mouth
DVia a non-rebreather mask over the mouth only
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium
A patient with advanced CKD asks how to manage indigestion. Which option should they avoid?
AEating smaller, more frequent meals
BRaising the head of the bed at night
CAvoiding large meals late in the evening
DMagnesium-containing antacids
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard
During an alteplase infusion for stroke, the patient develops a severe headache, vomiting and a falling GCS. What should the nurse do first?
AGive an antiemetic and recheck the GCS in an hour's time
BSpeed up the infusion so that it finishes sooner
CStop the infusion and call the stroke team urgently
DGive a sedative to settle the patient and continue
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium
Why are urinary catheters removed as early as possible after surgery?
ABecause patients cannot drink normally while a catheter is in place
BTo reduce the risk of catheter-associated infection
CBecause the catheter stops the bowel working
DBecause catheters always cause kidney stones
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard
Which patient has the highest risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting?
AA smoker who has never had nausea after surgery
BA man with no history of nausea having local anaesthetic only
CA non-smoking woman with motion sickness who will need opioids
DA male smoker having a short procedure without opioids
7.Clinical nursingMedium
Which measure helps reduce the risk of surgical site infection?
ALeaving the patient cool during surgery to slow bacterial growth
BShaving the area with a razor the night before surgery
CRemoving hair, if needed, with clippers rather than a razor
DChanging the wound dressing every hour
8.Clinical nursingHard
Which drug group is first-line for a prolonged convulsive seizure?
ABeta-blockers, such as bisoprolol or atenolol
BOpioids, such as morphine or diamorphine, given intravenously
CAntihistamines, such as chlorphenamine
DBenzodiazepines, such as buccal midazolam or IV lorazepam
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium
Why can a patient with liver failure have a raised INR without taking warfarin?
AThe liver makes most clotting factors, so production falls
BAlbumin is a clotting factor, and its level falls
CThe kidneys stop clearing the clotting factors from the blood
DBilirubin directly destroys the clotting factors
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard
A patient has painless jaundice, itching, dark urine and pale stools. ALP is markedly raised, conjugated (direct) bilirubin is high and ALT is only mildly raised. What is the most likely cause?
AGilbert syndrome, a harmless inherited bilirubin disorder
BBlockage of bile flow, for example by a tumor in the bile duct
CIncreased breakdown of red blood cells (hemolytic anemia)
DAcute viral hepatitis with widespread liver cell damage
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium
A practice gas shows PaCO₂ 48 mmHg (6.4 kPa). Use the rule that in chronic respiratory acidosis HCO₃⁻ rises by 3.5 mmol/L for every 10 mmHg that PaCO₂ is above 40, starting from HCO₃⁻ 24 mmol/L, to find the expected HCO₃⁻.
A practice gas shows a respiratory acidosis: pH 7.19, PaCO₂ 76 mmHg (10.1 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 28 mmol/L. Use the rules ‘HCO₃⁻ rises 1 mmol/L per 10 mmHg (acute) or 3.5 mmol/L per 10 mmHg (chronic)’ to classify it. Click your answer.
pH 7.19PaCO₂ 76 mmHg (10.1 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 28 mmol/L
1acute
2chronic
3acute on chronic
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretationMedium
Interpret this lead II rhythm strip. Which rhythm is it? Click your answer.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
1junctional rhythm
2atrial fibrillation
3normal sinus rhythm
4first-degree AV block
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
Interpret this lead II strip with the five steps in order: rate, rhythm, P waves, PR interval, QRS duration. At which step do you find the first abnormal finding? Click it.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
1rate
2rhythm
3P waves
4PR interval
5QRS duration
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium
Which task is most appropriate for the RN to delegate to an LPN/LVN?
ADoing the admission assessment of a new patient
BStarting the first unit of red blood cells
CInserting an indwelling urinary catheter in a stable patient
DGiving discharge teaching to a patient newly started on insulin
16.Prioritization & delegationHard
Which delegation is appropriate for a nursing assistant?
AChecking a newly placed nasogastric tube before the first feed
BCollecting a routine urine specimen from a stable patient
CGiving the first meal to a patient whose swallowing has not yet been screened after a stroke
DMonitoring a patient during the first 15 minutes of a blood transfusion
3Solutions
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: B · Papillary muscle rupture with acute mitral regurgitation
Why this is the answer
Rupture of a papillary muscle (or of the ventricular septum) after MI produces a new murmur and sudden heart failure or shock. This is a surgical emergency. Pericarditis causes pleuritic chest pain and a friction rub rather than acute pulmonary oedema with a new murmur.
Answer
B · Papillary muscle rupture with acute mitral regurgitation
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: B · Via a mask or humidified device over the neck stoma
Why this is the answer
A total laryngectomy separates the trachea from the upper airway, so the patient breathes only through the neck stoma. Oxygen and any rescue breaths must be given via the stoma. These patients are "neck breathers" and often carry an alert card.
Answer
B · Via a mask or humidified device over the neck stoma
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: D · Magnesium-containing antacids
Why this is the answer
Magnesium and aluminium are excreted by the kidneys and can accumulate in kidney failure. Patients with CKD should check with a pharmacist before using over-the-counter remedies, including laxatives and NSAIDs.
Answer
D · Magnesium-containing antacids
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: C · Stop the infusion and call the stroke team urgently
Why this is the answer
New headache, vomiting, hypertension or neurological deterioration during or after thrombolysis may indicate symptomatic intracranial haemorrhage. The infusion is stopped, urgent medical review arranged and an urgent CT scan and coagulation tests anticipated.
Answer
C · Stop the infusion and call the stroke team urgently
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: B · To reduce the risk of catheter-associated infection
Why this is the answer
The risk of catheter-associated urinary tract infection increases with duration. Daily review of the need for a catheter, and early removal, reduce infection and help mobilisation.
Answer
B · To reduce the risk of catheter-associated infection
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: C · A non-smoking woman with motion sickness who will need opioids
Why this is the answer
Apfel risk factors are female sex, non-smoking status, a history of PONV or motion sickness, and postoperative opioids. Patients with more factors receive more preventive antiemetics.
Answer
C · A non-smoking woman with motion sickness who will need opioids
7.Clinical nursing
Answer: C · Removing hair, if needed, with clippers rather than a razor
Why this is the answer
Razors cause micro-abrasions that increase infection risk, so hair is removed only if necessary with clippers just before surgery. Keeping patients warm and good skin preparation also help.
Answer
C · Removing hair, if needed, with clippers rather than a razor
8.Clinical nursing
Answer: D · Benzodiazepines, such as buccal midazolam or IV lorazepam
Why this is the answer
Benzodiazepines enhance GABA and are first-line for seizures lasting over five minutes. If seizures continue, second-line antiepileptic drugs are given and senior help is needed.
Answer
D · Benzodiazepines, such as buccal midazolam or IV lorazepam
9.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: A · The liver makes most clotting factors, so production falls
Why this is the answer
The liver makes most clotting factors, including the vitamin K–dependent ones. In severe liver disease their production falls, so the INR rises. A raised INR is one of the markers of how severe liver failure is.
Answer
A · The liver makes most clotting factors, so production falls
10.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: B · Blockage of bile flow, for example by a tumor in the bile duct
Why this is the answer
In obstruction, conjugated bilirubin backs up into the blood and is passed in the urine, making it dark, while stools are pale and ALP rises. Hemolysis and Gilbert syndrome raise unconjugated bilirubin; hepatitis raises ALT much more.
Answer
B · Blockage of bile flow, for example by a tumor in the bile duct
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: HCO₃⁻ = 26.8 mmol/L
Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.
Change in PaCO₂
|48 − 40| = 8 mmHg → 0.8 × 10 mmHg
Expected HCO₃⁻
HCO₃⁻ = 24 + 3.5·0.8 = 26.8 mmol/L
Answer
HCO₃⁻ = 26.8 mmol/L
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: acute
Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.
Expected HCO₃⁻
acute: 24 + 1·3.6 = 27.6 mmol/L
chronic: 24 + 3.5·3.6 = 36.6 mmol/L
Compare
measured: 28 mmol/L → acute
Answer
acute
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: junctional rhythm
Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC.
Five steps
1. Rate: R–R = 36 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 36 ≈ 42 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 1.44 s.
3. P waves: none visible.
4. PR interval: not measurable.
5. QRS: 0.06 s, narrow (below 0.12 s).
Interpretation
junctional rhythm
Answer
junctional rhythm
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: PR interval
Five steps for every strip: 1. rate (300 or 1500 method, or the 6-second method if irregular); 2. rhythm: are the R–R intervals equal; 3. P waves: present, upright in lead II, one before every QRS and all alike; 4. PR interval: 0.12–0.20 s and constant; 5. QRS duration: below 0.12 s. Only after the five steps name the rhythm. Normal sinus rhythm passes all five: 60–100/min, regular, upright P before every QRS, PR 0.12–0.20 s, QRS below 0.12 s.
Five steps
1. Rate: R–R = 20 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 20 ≈ 75 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 0.80 s.
3. P waves: upright, one before every QRS, all alike.
4. PR interval: 0.30 s, constant, longer than 0.20 s.
5. QRS: 0.08 s, narrow (below 0.12 s).
First abnormal step
PR interval → first-degree AV block
Answer
PR interval
15.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: C · Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter in a stable patient
Why this is the answer
Inserting a catheter in a stable patient is a skill commonly within LPN/LVN scope. Admission assessment, initial teaching and starting a transfusion usually stay with the RN. Exact scope differs by state and country.
Answer
C · Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter in a stable patient
16.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: B · Collecting a routine urine specimen from a stable patient
Why this is the answer
Collecting a routine urine sample from a stable patient is predictable and delegable. Confirming tube placement, feeding before a swallow screen and monitoring the start of a transfusion all need nursing assessment.
Answer
B · Collecting a routine urine specimen from a stable patient