Medical-Surgical Nursing: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 16 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Method

  1. Name the problem: pump failure, blocked artery, rhythm, clot, airway narrowing, infection or a device problem.
  2. Check the danger signs first: hypoxia, hypotension, chest pain, new confusion, a cold pulseless limb.
  3. Match the oxygen to the patient: 94–98% for most, 88–92% for those at risk of CO₂ retention.
  4. Link each drug to its test and its risk: warfarin and INR, heparin and aPTT and platelets, diuretics and potassium.
  5. Choose the safe first action, then escalate and reassess.

Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Method

  1. Check the glucose in every patient with new confusion, weakness or a seizure.
  2. Use the level of consciousness as the earliest warning of brain trouble; pupils and Cushing’s triad come late.
  3. For diabetes emergencies, separate DKA (ketones, acidosis) from HHS (very high osmolality, dehydration); give fluids first.
  4. For sodium and water, decide whether ADH is in excess (SIADH) or missing (DI), and correct chronic changes slowly.
  5. For kidney problems, sort the cause into pre-renal, intrinsic or post-renal, and watch potassium and fluid.

Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Method

  1. Ask what could be hidden: internal bleeding, infection without fever, hypoventilation behind a normal SpO₂.
  2. Use the timing after surgery to narrow the complications: bleeding in hours, chest problems in days, wound and leak problems later.
  3. For pain, assess, treat with multimodal analgesia, reassess, and monitor sedation with every opioid.
  4. For cancer patients, treat any illness during the nadir as neutropenic sepsis and know the oncological emergencies.
  5. For burns, count only partial- and full-thickness areas, start the Parkland clock at the time of the burn and titrate to urine output.

Lab values & electrolytes

Method

  1. Compare the value with the laboratory’s own reference range, then with the patient’s baseline and trend.
  2. Check the sample: hemolysis, a delay, or blood drawn near an IV can give false results.
  3. Link the value to its typical signs and to the drugs and conditions that cause it.
  4. Look for interactions: low potassium or magnesium increases digoxin toxicity; dehydration raises lithium.
  5. Act on the patient: assess, hold a drug if the level is unsafe, read back critical values and inform the prescriber.

Arterial blood gas interpretation

Normal ranges
pH 7.35–7.45, PaCO₂ 35–45 mmHg (4.7–6.0 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 22–26 mmol/L
ROME
Respiratory: PaCO₂ opposite to pH; Metabolic: HCO₃⁻ equal to pH
Winter’s formula
PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2
Metabolic alkalosis
PaCO₂ ≈ 0.7·HCO₃⁻ + 21
Anion gap
AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) ≈ 8–12
Albumin-corrected gap
AG + 2.5·(4.0 − alb g/dL) = AG + 0.25·(40 − alb g/L)
Delta ratio
(AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻)
P/F ratio
PaO₂/FiO₂
Alveolar gas equation
PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8
Serum osmolality
2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8)

Method

  1. Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
  2. Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
  3. Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
  4. In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
  5. Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.

ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)

Method

  1. Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
  2. Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
  3. P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
  4. PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
  5. QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.

Prioritization & delegation

Method

  1. Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
  2. Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
  3. Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
  4. Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
  5. For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.

2Practice problems

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium

A patient's capillary refill time at the fingertip is 4 seconds. What does this suggest?

  1. AReduced peripheral perfusion
  2. BAn unusually strong cardiac output
  3. CNormal peripheral perfusion
  4. DA high haemoglobin level
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard

A patient with COPD on a 28% Venturi mask (SpO₂ 90%) wants to eat a meal. What is the most appropriate plan?

  1. ASwitch to nasal cannula at low flow, keeping SpO₂ at 88–92%
  2. BChange to a non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min during the meal
  3. CKeep the Venturi mask on and give only liquids through a straw
  4. DRemove all oxygen during the meal and replace it afterwards
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium

In the first trimester of pregnancy, why is propylthiouracil often preferred to carbimazole for hyperthyroidism?

  1. APropylthiouracil has no side effects at all
  2. BPropylthiouracil works faster than any other drug
  3. CCarbimazole cannot cross into the mother's blood
  4. DCarbimazole has a higher risk of birth defects early on
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard

A patient with diabetes insipidus after head trauma needs hourly urine output measurement. Which task can be delegated to a trained healthcare assistant (nursing assistant)?

  1. AAssessing the patient's level of consciousness
  2. BDeciding whether to give the next desmopressin dose
  3. CMeasuring hourly urine and reporting results above a set amount
  4. DInterpreting the serum sodium results
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium

Which PPE is usually recommended when giving cytotoxic chemotherapy?

  1. AChemo-tested gloves and impermeable gown
  2. BA paper surgical mask but no gloves
  3. CNo PPE, because the infusion bag is sealed
  4. DOrdinary cotton gloves and a plastic apron
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard

On the morning of elective hip surgery, a patient says she took her usual warfarin last night despite being told to stop. What should the nurse do?

  1. ATell her the surgery must be cancelled for a month
  2. BGive a double dose of vitamin K by mouth without waiting for a prescription
  3. CProceed with the usual checklist and say nothing
  4. DInform the surgical and anaesthetic teams, who will check the INR
7.Clinical nursingMedium

Within which time window is IV thrombolysis generally given for acute ischaemic stroke?

  1. AWithin 48 hours of the onset of symptoms
  2. BAt any time within a week
  3. COnly after 24 hours
  4. DWithin 4.5 hours of symptom onset
8.Clinical nursingHard

A patient on IV vancomycin develops flushing and an itchy red rash on the face and neck during a fast infusion. What is the most likely cause and response?

  1. AInfusion-related reaction; stop or slow the infusion and inform the prescriber
  2. BLiver failure; stop all medicines permanently
  3. CNormal response; increase the infusion rate
  4. DSunburn; apply cream and continue
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium

A woman with hyperemesis gravidarum has vomited for 3 days. Which urine finding would the nurse expect?

  1. ABilirubin
  2. BNitrites
  3. CKetones
  4. DRed cell casts
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard

A patient with thalassemia major has received regular red cell transfusions for years. The ferritin is now very high. What does this most likely show, and what treatment is used?

  1. AIron deficiency, treated with IV iron supplements
  2. BLiver failure, treated with a liver transplant at once
  3. CAcute infection, treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics
  4. DIron overload, treated with iron chelation therapy
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium
pH7.357.457.28PaCO₂mmHg354553HCO₃⁻mmol/L222624uncompensatedpartially compensatedfully compensated

A practice arterial blood gas shows pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 53 mmHg (7.1 kPa) and HCO₃⁻ 24 mmol/L. The primary disorder is respiratory acidosis. How far is it compensated? Click your answer.

pH 7.28PaCO₂ 53 mmHg (7.1 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 24 mmol/L
  1. 1uncompensated
  2. 2partially compensated
  3. 3fully compensated
12.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard

A practice gas shows a metabolic alkalosis with HCO₃⁻ 44 mmol/L. Use expected PaCO₂ = 0.7·HCO₃⁻ + 21 to find the expected PaCO₂.

HCO₃⁻ 44 mmol/L
PaCO₂ = mmHg
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretationMedium
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mV

Measure the QT interval and the R–R interval on this regular lead II strip, then calculate the rate-corrected QTc with Bazett’s formula QTc = QT/√RR (both in seconds). Give the answer in seconds to three decimals.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
QTc = s
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVidioventricular rhythmpaced rhythm, failure to capturethird-degree (complete) AV blockdual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm

This patient has a pacemaker. Interpret the lead II strip. Click your answer.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1idioventricular rhythm
  2. 2paced rhythm, failure to capture
  3. 3third-degree (complete) AV block
  4. 4dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium

Which task is most appropriate for the RN to delegate to an LPN/LVN?

  1. AGiving discharge teaching to a patient newly started on insulin
  2. BInserting an indwelling urinary catheter in a stable patient
  3. CStarting the first unit of red blood cells
  4. DDoing the admission assessment of a new patient
16.Prioritization & delegationHard

Which delegation is appropriate for a nursing assistant?

  1. ACollecting a routine urine specimen from a stable patient
  2. BMonitoring a patient during the first 15 minutes of a blood transfusion
  3. CGiving the first meal to a patient whose swallowing has not yet been screened after a stroke
  4. DChecking a newly placed nasogastric tube before the first feed

3Solutions

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: A · Reduced peripheral perfusion

Why this is the answer

Capillary refill time above about 2 seconds suggests poor peripheral perfusion, for example from dehydration, shock or cold. It should be interpreted with other signs such as heart rate, blood pressure, skin temperature and urine output.

Answer

A · Reduced peripheral perfusion
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: A · Switch to nasal cannula at low flow, keeping SpO₂ at 88–92%

Why this is the answer

Oxygen is prescribed to a target range and should not be stopped for meals in a patient who needs it. Nasal cannulae allow eating and talking; the flow (for example 1–2 L/min) is titrated to keep the saturation in the target range. High-concentration oxygen risks hypercapnia.

Answer

A · Switch to nasal cannula at low flow, keeping SpO₂ at 88–92%
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: D · Carbimazole has a higher risk of birth defects early on

Why this is the answer

Carbimazole is linked to congenital abnormalities when used in early pregnancy, so propylthiouracil is often used in the first trimester. Propylthiouracil can cause serious liver injury, so it is not preferred at other times.

Answer

D · Carbimazole has a higher risk of birth defects early on
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: C · Measuring hourly urine and reporting results above a set amount

Why this is the answer

Measuring and recording urine output with clear instructions on when to report is suitable for a trained assistant. Medication decisions, neurological assessment and interpreting results stay with the registered nurse.

Answer

C · Measuring hourly urine and reporting results above a set amount
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: A · Chemo-tested gloves and impermeable gown

Why this is the answer

Cytotoxic drugs can be absorbed through skin or inhaled. Staff use chemotherapy-tested gloves (often double), impermeable long-sleeved gowns and eye protection where splashing could occur, along with closed-system devices and safe disposal.

Answer

A · Chemo-tested gloves and impermeable gown
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: D · Inform the surgical and anaesthetic teams, who will check the INR

Why this is the answer

Recent warfarin may leave the INR too high for safe surgery or a spinal anaesthetic. The team needs to know at once; they check the INR and decide whether to delay or reverse.

Answer

D · Inform the surgical and anaesthetic teams, who will check the INR
7.Clinical nursing

Answer: D · Within 4.5 hours of symptom onset

Why this is the answer

Thrombolysis with alteplase is generally given within 4.5 hours of onset after a scan excludes haemorrhage. Knowing when the patient was last seen well is therefore essential.

Answer

D · Within 4.5 hours of symptom onset
8.Clinical nursing

Answer: A · Infusion-related reaction; stop or slow the infusion and inform the prescriber

Why this is the answer

Rapid vancomycin infusion can release histamine and cause flushing and rash ("vancomycin infusion reaction"). Slowing the rate usually prevents it, but anaphylaxis must be excluded.

Answer

A · Infusion-related reaction; stop or slow the infusion and inform the prescriber
9.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: C · Ketones

Why this is the answer

Prolonged vomiting and poor intake lead to fat breakdown and ketonuria, along with dehydration and electrolyte loss such as hypokalemia. Urine ketones help assess severity and response to IV fluids and antiemetics.

Answer

C · Ketones
10.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: D · Iron overload, treated with iron chelation therapy

Why this is the answer

The body has no active way to excrete iron, so repeated transfusions cause iron overload, which can damage the heart, liver and endocrine glands. A very high ferritin reflects this, and iron chelators are used to remove the excess.

Answer

D · Iron overload, treated with iron chelation therapy
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: uncompensated

Reading a blood gas (ROME): first the pH: below 7.35 is acidaemia, above 7.45 alkalaemia. Then find the value that explains it. PaCO₂ (normal 35–45 mmHg, 4.7–6.0 kPa) is the respiratory part and moves Opposite to the pH in a respiratory disorder; HCO₃⁻ (normal 22–26 mmol/L) is the metabolic part and moves in the same direction as the pH (Respiratory Opposite, Metabolic Equal). The other value shows the compensation: normal means uncompensated; abnormal in the direction that pulls the pH back while the pH is still abnormal means partially compensated; a normal pH with both values abnormal means fully compensated. Ranges differ slightly between laboratories; these are practice values.

ROME, value by value

pH 7.28: acidaemia (below 7.35)
PaCO₂ 53 mmHg: high (35–45)
HCO₃⁻ 24 mmol/L: normal (22–26)

Compensation

uncompensated

Answer

uncompensated
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: PaCO₂ = 51.8 mmHg

Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.

Expected PaCO₂

0.7·44 + 21 = 51.8 mmHg

Answer

PaCO₂ = 51.8 mmHg

The rise has a limit: PaCO₂ rarely goes above about 55 mmHg from compensation alone.

13.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: QTc = 0.388 s

QT and QTc: the QT interval runs from the start of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. It shortens as the heart rate rises, so it is corrected for rate with the R–R interval in seconds: Bazett QTc = QT/√RR and Fridericia QTc = QT/∛RR. Bazett is the formula most textbooks use; it over-corrects at fast rates, where Fridericia is preferred. Limits differ between references: a QTc above about 0.45 s in men or 0.46 s in women is usually called prolonged, and above 0.50 s markedly prolonged.

Measure

QT = 8 × 0.04 = 0.32 s
RR = 17 × 0.04 = 0.68 s

Bazett’s formula

QTc = 0.32/√0.68 = 0.32/0.8246 = 0.388 s

Answer

QTc = 0.388 s

Within the usual limits (about 0.45 s for men, 0.46 s for women). (388 ms)

14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: paced rhythm, failure to capture

Paced rhythms: a pacemaker impulse shows as a narrow vertical pacing spike. After a ventricular spike the QRS is wide (0.12 s or more), because the impulse spreads from the lead through the muscle instead of the conduction system; with right-ventricular pacing it is often mostly negative in lead II. A spike before each P wave means atrial pacing, and a dual-chamber (AV) pacemaker shows an atrial spike and a P wave, then, after the programmed AV delay, a ventricular spike and a wide QRS. Capture means every spike is followed by a depolarisation. Failure to capture is a spike without a P wave or QRS after it; failure to sense (spikes that ignore the patient’s own beats) and failure to pace (no spike when one is due) are the other classic malfunctions.

Five steps

1. Rate: 4 QRS complexes in 6 s, × 10 = 40 per minute.
2. Rhythm: the pacing spikes are regular (every 1.00 s), but the R–R is not, because a QRS is missing after some spikes.
3. P waves: none visible.
4. PR interval: not measurable.
5. QRS: 0.14 s and wide after the captured spikes; 2 spikes are not followed by a QRS (no capture).

Interpretation

paced rhythm, failure to capture

Answer

paced rhythm, failure to capture

Failure to capture: the pacemaker fires but the heart does not respond. Textbooks treat it as urgent to report, because the patient may depend on the pacemaker.

15.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: B · Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter in a stable patient

Why this is the answer

Inserting a catheter in a stable patient is a skill commonly within LPN/LVN scope. Admission assessment, initial teaching and starting a transfusion usually stay with the RN. Exact scope differs by state and country.

Answer

B · Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter in a stable patient
16.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: A · Collecting a routine urine specimen from a stable patient

Why this is the answer

Collecting a routine urine sample from a stable patient is predictable and delegable. Confirming tube placement, feeding before a swallow screen and monitoring the start of a transfusion all need nursing assessment.

Answer

A · Collecting a routine urine specimen from a stable patient

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