Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.
ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)
Method
Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.
Prioritization & delegation
Method
Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.
2Practice problems
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium
A patient with heart failure starts dapagliflozin, an SGLT2 inhibitor. Which teaching is most relevant?
AExpect the urine to turn bright orange and stain underwear and clothes
BKeep the genital area clean, as fungal infections are more common
CAvoid drinking any fluids at all for the first week of treatment
DTake an extra dose if the ankles swell
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard
Four hours after cardiac surgery, the mediastinal drain, which had been draining steadily, suddenly stops. BP falls to 84/60 mmHg, the heart rate rises and the CVP climbs. What should the nurse suspect?
ANormal recovery, as the bleeding has stopped
BCardiac tamponade from a clotted drain
CFluid overload from intravenous fluids
DA tension pneumothorax on the left side
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium
A stroke patient understands what is said but struggles to find words and speaks in short, effortful phrases. What type of aphasia is this?
AGlobal aphasia with no understanding
BReceptive (Wernicke's) aphasia
CExpressive (Broca's) aphasia
DDysarthria from weak facial muscles
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard
On the first day after a kidney transplant, urine output suddenly falls from 200 mL/h to 10 mL/h. What should the nurse check first?
AThat the catheter is not blocked or kinked
BThe patient's temperature and pulse
CWhether the patient has eaten
DThe patient's blood glucose level
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium
A patient with obstructive sleep apnoea is admitted for surgery. Which instruction is most appropriate?
ALie flat on their back for the first night
BStop all pain relief for the first three days
CAvoid sleeping at all on the night after surgery
DBring their CPAP machine to use after surgery
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard
A patient with small bowel obstruction has a nasogastric tube draining 2 L a day. Which nursing focus is most important?
AClamping the tube for long periods to save the stomach fluid
BGiving oral fluids freely to replace what the tube removes
CRemoving the tube once 1 L has drained to prevent losses
DAccurate fluid balance with IV replacement and electrolyte checks
7.Clinical nursingMedium
Which measure helps prevent delirium in older inpatients?
AKeeping the lights on all night
BMoving the patient to a different bed each night to give them a change of scene
CRestricting fluids to avoid incontinence
DReorientation, glasses and hearing aids in use, and good sleep and hydration
8.Clinical nursingHard
A patient with long-standing COPD has an arterial blood gas with pH 7.37, a raised PaCO2 and a raised bicarbonate. How is this best described?
AUncompensated metabolic alkalosis
BAcute respiratory acidosis
CCompensated respiratory acidosis
DMixed metabolic and respiratory alkalosis
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium
A patient receiving chemotherapy has an ANC of 300/µL and a new temperature of 38.3 °C (100.9 °F). What should the nurse do first?
ARemove extra blankets and offer a tepid sponge bath
BGive acetaminophen (paracetamol) and recheck the temperature in 4 hours
CReport it at once so cultures and antibiotics start quickly
DEncourage oral fluids and record the fever in the chart
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard
A nursing student has a positive interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) for tuberculosis, no symptoms and a normal chest X-ray. What does this most likely mean?
APast BCG vaccination only, with no infection
BLatent TB infection, which is not contagious
CA false result, as the test does not detect TB
DActive pulmonary TB, which is contagious
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium
Practice values: Na⁺ 140 mmol/L, glucose 30.1 mmol/L and urea 12.4 mmol/L. Calculate the serum osmolality Osm = 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea to the nearest whole number.
Na⁺ 140 mmol/Lglucose 30.1 mmol/Lurea 12.4 mmol/L
Osm = mOsm/kg
12.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard
At sea level, a practice gas taken on 40% oxygen shows PaO₂ 56 mmHg (7.5 kPa) and PaCO₂ 41 mmHg (5.5 kPa). Use PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 to find the A–a gradient.
This lead II strip shows atrial flutter. How many flutter waves per QRS complex are there (the n of n:1 conduction)?
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
flutter waves per QRS =
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
This lead II strip shows a conduction problem between the atria and the ventricles. Which rhythm is it? Click your answer.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
1atrial fibrillation
2third-degree (complete) AV block
3second-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)
4first-degree AV block
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium
Which patient on an addiction unit should the nurse see first?
ALast drink one week ago; asking about support groups
BLast drink this morning; asking when lunch will arrive
CLast drink two days ago; now shaking, sweating, heart rate 124/min and seeing insects
DIn recovery for a year; came to the clinic today for a routine check and a repeat prescription
16.Prioritization & delegationHard
Two patients on the unit have the same surname. What should the nurse do before giving a medication?
AAsk the patient, “Are you Mr Smith?” and give the drug once he says yes
BCheck two identifiers against the wristband and the medication record
CAsk a nursing assistant which patient is which
DUse the room number as the main identifier
3Solutions
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: B · Keep the genital area clean, as fungal infections are more common
Why this is the answer
SGLT2 inhibitors increase glucose loss in the urine, raising the risk of genital thrush and urinary infections. They also cause mild diuresis, and in people with diabetes there is a rare risk of ketoacidosis, so they are paused during acute illness as advised. They improve outcomes in heart failure.
Answer
B · Keep the genital area clean, as fungal infections are more common
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: B · Cardiac tamponade from a clotted drain
Why this is the answer
A sudden stop in drainage with falling blood pressure, tachycardia and rising venous pressure suggests blood is collecting around the heart because the drain is blocked. Tamponade after cardiac surgery is an emergency: the surgeon is called at once and the chest may need to be reopened.
Answer
B · Cardiac tamponade from a clotted drain
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: C · Expressive (Broca's) aphasia
Why this is the answer
Expressive aphasia, from damage to Broca's area in the frontal lobe, causes non-fluent, effortful speech with relatively preserved understanding. Receptive aphasia causes fluent but meaningless speech and poor comprehension. Dysarthria is a motor speech problem with intact language.
Answer
C · Expressive (Broca's) aphasia
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: A · That the catheter is not blocked or kinked
Why this is the answer
A sudden drop in output after transplant may be caused by a blocked catheter, often from clots. The nurse checks the tubing and may flush the catheter per protocol, and then escalates urgently, because vascular thrombosis or rejection are also possible.
Answer
A · That the catheter is not blocked or kinked
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: D · Bring their CPAP machine to use after surgery
Why this is the answer
OSA increases the risk of airway obstruction and respiratory depression after anaesthesia, especially with opioids. Using CPAP, careful opioid use, sitting up and close monitoring reduce this risk.
Answer
D · Bring their CPAP machine to use after surgery
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: D · Accurate fluid balance with IV replacement and electrolyte checks
Why this is the answer
Large NG losses cause dehydration, hypokalaemia and a hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis. The aspirate is measured and recorded, replaced IV as prescribed (often with potassium-containing crystalloid), and urea, creatinine and electrolytes are checked at least daily. Oral fluids would increase the losses and vomiting risk.
Answer
D · Accurate fluid balance with IV replacement and electrolyte checks
7.Clinical nursing
Answer: D · Reorientation, glasses and hearing aids in use, and good sleep and hydration
Why this is the answer
Multicomponent prevention, including orientation, sensory aids, hydration, nutrition, mobility, sleep and avoiding unnecessary moves or drugs, reduces delirium.
Answer
D · Reorientation, glasses and hearing aids in use, and good sleep and hydration
8.Clinical nursing
Answer: C · Compensated respiratory acidosis
Why this is the answer
Chronic CO2 retention is offset by the kidneys retaining bicarbonate, bringing the pH back to normal. A normal pH with high PaCO2 and high bicarbonate is a compensated respiratory acidosis.
Answer
C · Compensated respiratory acidosis
9.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: C · Report it at once so cultures and antibiotics start quickly
Why this is the answer
Neutropenic fever is a medical emergency, because infection can progress to sepsis rapidly without the usual signs of inflammation. Blood cultures are taken and broad-spectrum antibiotics are started promptly as prescribed.Checked against:Watch Out for Fever · CDC (2024); What You Need to Know: Neutropenia and Risk for Infection · CDC
Answer
C · Report it at once so cultures and antibiotics start quickly
10.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: B · Latent TB infection, which is not contagious
Why this is the answer
A positive IGRA with no symptoms and a normal chest X-ray indicates latent TB infection, which cannot spread to others. Treatment of latent TB is often offered to prevent later active disease. The IGRA is much less likely than the skin test to give a false-positive result after BCG vaccination.Checked against:Tuberculosis Screening · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2026); PPD skin test · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2025)
Answer
B · Latent TB infection, which is not contagious
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: Osm = 323 mOsm/kg
Derived values: calculated serum osmolality is 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea with all values in mmol/L (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8 with glucose and BUN in mg/dL); normal is about 275–295 mOsm/kg. The P/F ratio is PaO₂ divided by FiO₂ as a fraction. The alveolar oxygen pressure is PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 mmHg at sea level, and the A–a gradient is PAO₂ − PaO₂.
Calculated osmolality
Osm = 2·140 + 30.1 + 12.4 = 322.5 ≈ 323 mOsm/kg
Answer
Osm = 323 mOsm/kg
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: A–a gradient = 177.9 mmHg
Derived values: calculated serum osmolality is 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea with all values in mmol/L (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8 with glucose and BUN in mg/dL); normal is about 275–295 mOsm/kg. The P/F ratio is PaO₂ divided by FiO₂ as a fraction. The alveolar oxygen pressure is PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 mmHg at sea level, and the A–a gradient is PAO₂ − PaO₂.
Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC.
Flutter waves
F–F = 5 small boxes = 0.20 s → 1500 ÷ 5 = 300 per minute
QRS complexes
R–R = 20 small boxes = 0.80 s → 1500 ÷ 20 = 75 per minute
conduction ratio = 300 ÷ 75 = 4:1
Answer
flutter waves per QRS = 4
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: second-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)
AV blocks: march out the P waves and check which ones are followed by a QRS. First-degree: every P conducted, PR constant and above 0.20 s. Second-degree type I (Mobitz I, Wenckebach): the PR lengthens from beat to beat until one P wave is not conducted, then the cycle starts again (group beating). Second-degree type II (Mobitz II): the PR of the conducted beats stays constant, and P waves are suddenly not conducted; the QRS is often wide. Third-degree (complete) block: P waves and QRS complexes are each regular but independent, the PR varies at random and the atrial rate is faster than the escape rate (junctional 40–60/min with a narrow QRS, ventricular 20–40/min with a wide QRS). A 2:1 block cannot be called type I or type II from one strip.
Five steps
1. Rate: 4 QRS complexes in 6 s, × 10 = 40 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regularly irregular, the QRS complexes come in groups separated by a pause (group beating).
3. P waves: upright and regular (P–P 1.00 s, 60 per minute); one P in every 3 is not followed by a QRS.
4. PR interval: lengthens 0.16 → 0.28 s, then a P wave is not conducted.
5. QRS: 0.08 s, narrow (below 0.12 s).
Interpretation
second-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)
Answer
second-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)
15.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: C · Last drink two days ago; now shaking, sweating, heart rate 124/min and seeing insects
Why this is the answer
Hallucinations, tremor, sweating and tachycardia two to three days after the last drink suggest severe withdrawal and possible delirium tremens, which can be fatal. This patient needs prompt assessment and treatment.
Answer
C · Last drink two days ago; now shaking, sweating, heart rate 124/min and seeing insects
16.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: B · Check two identifiers against the wristband and the medication record
Why this is the answer
The nurse uses at least two identifiers, such as full name and date of birth, checked against the wristband and record. Open questions (“Please tell me your name”) are safer than yes/no questions.
Answer
B · Check two identifiers against the wristband and the medication record