Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.
ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)
Method
Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.
Prioritization & delegation
Method
Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.
2Practice problems
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium
A patient uses a glyceryl trinitrate (nitroglycerin) patch for angina. Why is it usually removed for several hours each day?
AThe skin needs a break to absorb a larger dose
BA nitrate-free interval prevents tolerance
CIt lowers the risk of a high potassium level
DThe patch works only during the night
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard
A patient with known hypertension has a BP of 186/112 mmHg with no symptoms and no signs of organ damage. Which response is most appropriate?
ARecheck it, report it and expect oral treatment over hours to days
BCall the cardiac arrest team and prepare for intubation
CGive an IV antihypertensive bolus to reach 120/80 mmHg within 15 minutes
DTake no action, because the patient feels well and has no symptoms
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium
A patient with CKD is booked for a CT scan with iodinated contrast. Which measure helps protect the kidneys?
AGood hydration around the scan, often with IV fluids
BRestricting all fluids for 24 hours before the scan
CGiving a dose of ibuprofen before the scan
DDoubling the dose of contrast for a clearer image
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard
The nurse has four urology patients. Which one needs to be seen first?
AA patient with a suprapubic catheter due for a routine change
BA patient with a nephrostomy who has rigors and a BP of 86/50 mmHg
CA patient with stress incontinence asking about pelvic floor exercises
DA patient after TURP with light pink drainage and mild discomfort
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium
Which presentation fits acute diverticulitis?
ALeft lower abdominal pain, fever and a raised CRP
BCentral chest pain spreading to the left arm
CPainless jaundice with a palpable gallbladder
DRight upper abdominal pain after fatty meals
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard
A patient with known prostate cancer reports new, worsening back pain and leg weakness. What is the most important action?
AAdvise rest at home with paracetamol and review at the next clinic visit
BArrange routine physiotherapy for the back pain in the next month
CPossible cord compression: escalate, steroids as prescribed, urgent MRI
DReassure the patient that back pain is common and not serious
7.Clinical nursingMedium
A pressure ulcer shows full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone. Which category (stage) is this?
ACategory 2
BCategory 3
CCategory 4
DCategory 1
8.Clinical nursingHard
Why is a patient kept under observation for several hours after successful treatment of anaphylaxis?
AThe patient must stay until all allergy tests are complete
BSymptoms can return later in a biphasic reaction
CAdrenaline always causes a heart attack hours later
DAntihistamines cause dangerous drowsiness for 24 hours
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium
A patient with HIV on antiretroviral therapy has an undetectable viral load. What does this mean?
AThe treatment is suppressing the virus very well
BThe virus has been completely cured and removed
CThe treatment can now be stopped without any risk
DThe CD4 count must now be dangerously low too
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard
A patient on digoxin has a calcium of 12.1 mg/dL (3.0 mmol/L) and new nausea and a slow pulse. Why is the calcium result important?
AHigh calcium makes the kidneys clear digoxin faster
BHigh calcium blocks digoxin, so the drug stops working
CHigh calcium only matters if the potassium is also high
DHigh calcium increases the risk of digoxin toxicity
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium
A practice arterial blood gas shows pH 7.38, PaCO₂ 23 mmHg (3.1 kPa) and HCO₃⁻ 13 mmol/L. The primary disorder is metabolic acidosis. How far is it compensated? Click your answer.
pH 7.38PaCO₂ 23 mmHg (3.1 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 13 mmol/L
1uncompensated
2partially compensated
3fully compensated
12.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard
Practice values: Na⁺ 137, Cl⁻ 113, HCO₃⁻ 15 mmol/L and albumin 32 g/L. Find the albumin-corrected anion gap AGc = AG + 0.25·(40 − albumin).
Interpret this lead II rhythm strip. Which rhythm is it? Click your answer.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
1atrial flutter, 2:1 conduction
2sinus bradycardia
3normal sinus rhythm
4sinus tachycardia
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
This lead II strip shows an AV block, so the atria and the ventricles beat at different rates. The QRS complexes are regular: find the ventricular rate in beats per minute (1500 method, whole number).
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
ventricular rate = bpm
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium
A patient is receiving opioids after surgery. Which finding usually comes before opioid-induced respiratory depression?
AIncreasing sleepiness that is hard to rouse
BA rise in blood pressure with flushed cheeks
CIncreased appetite and thirst
DA sudden rise in pain scores
16.Prioritization & delegationHard
A patient has full-thickness burns all the way around the chest and is finding it harder to breathe, although the airway is clear. What does this suggest?
AThe tight burned skin is restricting chest movement, so an escharotomy may be needed
BThe patient is anxious and only needs reassurance
CThe patient has had too little IV fluid and needs a fast bolus to improve the breathing
DThe burns are healing and the skin is tightening normally
3Solutions
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: B · A nitrate-free interval prevents tolerance
Why this is the answer
Continuous nitrate use leads to tolerance within days. A daily nitrate-free period (often overnight, when angina is least likely) keeps the drug effective. Patients are taught to rotate patch sites.
Answer
B · A nitrate-free interval prevents tolerance
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: A · Recheck it, report it and expect oral treatment over hours to days
Why this is the answer
Severe hypertension without acute organ damage (sometimes called hypertensive urgency) is managed by confirming the reading, looking for causes such as pain or missed doses and adjusting oral therapy to lower the pressure over hours to days. Rapid lowering risks ischaemia of the brain, heart and kidneys, but ignoring it is also unsafe.
Answer
A · Recheck it, report it and expect oral treatment over hours to days
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: A · Good hydration around the scan, often with IV fluids
Why this is the answer
Iodinated contrast can contribute to AKI in at-risk patients. Good hydration, using the lowest dose needed, avoiding nephrotoxic drugs and checking kidney function afterwards help reduce the risk.
Answer
A · Good hydration around the scan, often with IV fluids
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: B · A patient with a nephrostomy who has rigors and a BP of 86/50 mmHg
Why this is the answer
Rigors and hypotension in a patient with a nephrostomy suggest urosepsis, which needs immediate assessment and treatment. Light pink drainage after TURP is expected. The other patients are stable.
Answer
B · A patient with a nephrostomy who has rigors and a BP of 86/50 mmHg
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: A · Left lower abdominal pain, fever and a raised CRP
Why this is the answer
Diverticulitis usually causes left iliac fossa pain and tenderness with fever, raised inflammatory markers and a change in bowel habit. CT confirms the diagnosis and shows complications such as abscess.
Answer
A · Left lower abdominal pain, fever and a raised CRP
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: C · Possible cord compression: escalate, steroids as prescribed, urgent MRI
Why this is the answer
Back pain with neurological symptoms in a patient with cancer suggests metastatic spinal cord compression. Early diagnosis (urgent whole-spine MRI) and treatment (dexamethasone, radiotherapy or surgery) preserve mobility and continence. Late presentation often leads to permanent paralysis.
Answer
C · Possible cord compression: escalate, steroids as prescribed, urgent MRI
7.Clinical nursing
Answer: C · Category 4
Why this is the answer
Category 4 involves full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon or muscle. Category 3 is full-thickness skin loss without exposed bone or tendon. US (NPIAP) terminology calls these stages rather than categories.
Answer
C · Category 4
8.Clinical nursing
Answer: B · Symptoms can return later in a biphasic reaction
Why this is the answer
Some patients have a second wave of symptoms hours after the first, called a biphasic reaction. Observation, an adrenaline auto-injector where indicated and allergy referral are part of safe discharge.
Answer
B · Symptoms can return later in a biphasic reaction
9.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: A · The treatment is suppressing the virus very well
Why this is the answer
An undetectable viral load shows that antiretroviral therapy is suppressing viral replication. The virus remains in the body, so treatment must continue. People with a sustained undetectable viral load do not transmit HIV sexually.
Answer
A · The treatment is suppressing the virus very well
10.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: D · High calcium increases the risk of digoxin toxicity
Why this is the answer
Hypercalcemia, like hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia, makes the heart more sensitive to digoxin and raises the risk of toxic arrhythmias. Nausea and bradycardia suggest toxicity, so the nurse holds the dose and reports the findings.
Answer
D · High calcium increases the risk of digoxin toxicity
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: fully compensated
Reading a blood gas (ROME): first the pH: below 7.35 is acidaemia, above 7.45 alkalaemia. Then find the value that explains it. PaCO₂ (normal 35–45 mmHg, 4.7–6.0 kPa) is the respiratory part and moves Opposite to the pH in a respiratory disorder; HCO₃⁻ (normal 22–26 mmol/L) is the metabolic part and moves in the same direction as the pH (Respiratory Opposite, Metabolic Equal). The other value shows the compensation: normal means uncompensated; abnormal in the direction that pulls the pH back while the pH is still abnormal means partially compensated; a normal pH with both values abnormal means fully compensated. Ranges differ slightly between laboratories; these are practice values.
ROME, value by value
pH 7.38: within 7.35–7.45
PaCO₂ 23 mmHg: low (35–45)
HCO₃⁻ 13 mmol/L: low (22–26)
Compensation
Clinically, also check the expected compensation: Winter’s formula expects PaCO₂ 25.5–29.5 mmHg, so the measured 23 mmHg points to an additional respiratory alkalosis (a mixed disorder). The answer above is the ROME exam classification.
fully compensated
Answer
fully compensated
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: AGc = 11 mmol/L
Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.
Anion gap
AG = 137 − (113 + 15) = 9
Correction for albumin
9 + 0.25·(40 − 32) = 11 mmol/L
Answer
AGc = 11 mmol/L
Still within about 8–12 after correction.
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: sinus tachycardia
Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC.
Five steps
1. Rate: R–R = 14 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 14 ≈ 107 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 0.56 s.
3. P waves: upright, one before every QRS, all alike.
4. PR interval: 0.12 s, constant, within 0.12–0.20 s.
5. QRS: 0.06 s, narrow (below 0.12 s).
Interpretation
sinus tachycardia
Answer
sinus tachycardia
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: ventricular rate = 58 bpm
AV blocks: march out the P waves and check which ones are followed by a QRS. First-degree: every P conducted, PR constant and above 0.20 s. Second-degree type I (Mobitz I, Wenckebach): the PR lengthens from beat to beat until one P wave is not conducted, then the cycle starts again (group beating). Second-degree type II (Mobitz II): the PR of the conducted beats stays constant, and P waves are suddenly not conducted; the QRS is often wide. Third-degree (complete) block: P waves and QRS complexes are each regular but independent, the PR varies at random and the atrial rate is faster than the escape rate (junctional 40–60/min with a narrow QRS, ventricular 20–40/min with a wide QRS). A 2:1 block cannot be called type I or type II from one strip.
Atrial rate
P–P = 19 small boxes = 0.76 s → 1500 ÷ 19 = 78.95 ≈ 79 per minute
Ventricular rate
R–R = 26 small boxes = 1.04 s → 1500 ÷ 26 = 57.69 ≈ 58 per minute
Answer
ventricular rate = 58 bpm
Answer
ventricular rate = 58 bpm
Third-degree block with a narrow-complex junctional escape (usually 40–60 per minute).
15.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: A · Increasing sleepiness that is hard to rouse
Why this is the answer
Sedation usually increases before breathing slows. Regular sedation checks let the nurse hold the opioid and act before respiratory depression occurs.
Answer
A · Increasing sleepiness that is hard to rouse
16.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: A · The tight burned skin is restricting chest movement, so an escharotomy may be needed
Why this is the answer
Circumferential full-thickness burns form stiff eschar that can stop the chest expanding. An escharotomy, cutting through the eschar, may be needed urgently to allow breathing.
Answer
A · The tight burned skin is restricting chest movement, so an escharotomy may be needed