Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.
ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)
Method
Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.
Prioritization & delegation
Method
Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.
2Practice problems
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium
Which laboratory test is used to adjust an unfractionated heparin infusion?
AaPTT (or anti-Xa level)
BD-dimer level
CINR (international normalised ratio)
DSerum fibrinogen level
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard
A patient with a stab wound to the chest has a hole that sucks air with each breath. What is the immediate management?
ALeave it open and give a nebuliser
BPack the wound tightly with gauze pushed deep into the chest
CCover it with a vented chest seal or a dressing taped on three sides
DSeal it completely with tape on all four sides and leave it alone
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium
Which action is part of an effective bowel programme after a spinal cord injury?
ARestricting fluids to reduce the volume of stool
BA routine at the same time each day, often after a meal
CAvoiding fibre to prevent bloating
DUsing strong laxatives only when the bowel has not opened for a week
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard
A patient taking amiodarone has gained weight and feels tired and cold. Which blood test is most relevant?
ASerum amylase and lipase levels
BSerum ferritin
CBlood alcohol level
DThyroid function tests
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium
Why are antiemetics usually given before chemotherapy starts?
AAntiemetics make the chemotherapy work better
BThey stop the chemotherapy from causing hair loss and mouth sores
CThey cannot be given once nausea has started
DPreventing nausea works better than treating it later
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard
After several days of a tight CPAP mask, a patient has a red, broken area on the bridge of the nose. What is this, and what should the nurse do?
AA normal mark; take no action until it heals
BAn allergic rash; stop the CPAP for good and give oral antihistamines
CA device-related pressure injury; protect skin and refit the mask
DA burn from the oxygen; apply ice to the area
7.Clinical nursingMedium
Which ECG change is typical of hypokalaemia?
ATall, peaked T waves
BST elevation in leads II, III and aVF
CFlattened T waves and prominent U waves
DA very short PR interval with a delta wave
8.Clinical nursingHard
A patient is taught to self-inject low-molecular-weight heparin. Which statement shows a need for further teaching?
A"I will inject into the fatty tissue of my abdomen."
B"I will change the injection site each time."
C"I will report any unusual bleeding or bruising."
D"I will rub the area firmly after the injection."
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium
When should the nurse check the glucose before giving a mealtime dose of rapid-acting insulin (such as lispro)?
AAt bedtime only, then giving the mealtime insulin overnight
BTwo hours after the meal, then giving the insulin dose
CJust before the meal, giving insulin when the food is ready
DOnly once a day, then giving the same dose before every meal
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard
Which set of results is most typical of iron-deficiency anemia?
ANormal hemoglobin with a high platelet count only
BLow hemoglobin, small red cells (low MCV) and low ferritin
CLow hemoglobin, large red cells (high MCV) and high ferritin
DHigh hemoglobin and high hematocrit
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium
A practice gas shows PaCO₂ 61 mmHg (8.1 kPa). Use the rule that in acute respiratory acidosis HCO₃⁻ rises by 1 mmol/L for every 10 mmHg that PaCO₂ is above 40, starting from HCO₃⁻ 24 mmol/L, to find the expected HCO₃⁻.
At sea level, a practice gas taken on 21% oxygen shows PaO₂ 95 mmHg (12.7 kPa) and PaCO₂ 28 mmHg (3.7 kPa). Use PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 to find the A–a gradient.
Interpret this lead II rhythm strip. Which rhythm is it? Click your answer.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
1sinus rhythm with PVCs
2first-degree AV block
3normal sinus rhythm
4atrial fibrillation
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
This patient has a pacemaker. Interpret the lead II strip. Click your answer.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
1paced rhythm, failure to capture
2idioventricular rhythm
3junctional rhythm
4dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium
During an IV antibiotic infusion, a patient develops hives, wheezing and a hoarse voice. What does the nurse do first?
AGive oral diphenhydramine
BStop the infusion
CSlow the infusion to half the rate
DDocument the reaction in the chart
16.Prioritization & delegationHard
A patient takes lithium. Which statement shows a need for further teaching?
A“I will keep my daily salt intake about the same as usual.”
B“I will take ibuprofen every day for my headaches.”
C“I will drink enough fluid every day.”
D“I will go for my blood tests as planned.”
3Solutions
1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: A · aPTT (or anti-Xa level)
Why this is the answer
IV unfractionated heparin has a variable effect and is titrated to the aPTT (or anti-Xa level) according to the prescribed protocol. The platelet count is also checked to detect heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. D-dimer is used to help exclude thrombosis, not to monitor treatment.
Answer
A · aPTT (or anti-Xa level)
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: C · Cover it with a vented chest seal or a dressing taped on three sides
Why this is the answer
An open (sucking) chest wound lets air enter the pleural space. A vented chest seal or a dressing taped on three sides acts as a flap valve, letting air out but not in. A fully sealed dressing can cause a tension pneumothorax. A chest drain is placed away from the wound.
Answer
C · Cover it with a vented chest seal or a dressing taped on three sides
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: B · A routine at the same time each day, often after a meal
Why this is the answer
A regular routine, timed after a meal to use the gastrocolic reflex, plus fluids, fibre and, often, suppositories or digital stimulation, helps prevent constipation and accidents. This also reduces the risk of autonomic dysreflexia.
Answer
B · A routine at the same time each day, often after a meal
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: D · Thyroid function tests
Why this is the answer
Amiodarone is rich in iodine and can cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. Thyroid function is checked before and during treatment. The symptoms here suggest hypothyroidism.
Answer
D · Thyroid function tests
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: D · Preventing nausea works better than treating it later
Why this is the answer
Chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting is better prevented than treated. Antiemetics are given before treatment and regularly afterwards, according to how emetogenic the regimen is.
Answer
D · Preventing nausea works better than treating it later
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: C · A device-related pressure injury; protect skin and refit the mask
Why this is the answer
Masks, tubes, catheters and splints can cause pressure injuries. The nurse checks the skin under devices regularly, uses protective dressings, adjusts fit and repositions where possible.
Answer
C · A device-related pressure injury; protect skin and refit the mask
7.Clinical nursing
Answer: C · Flattened T waves and prominent U waves
Why this is the answer
Low potassium causes flattened or inverted T waves, ST depression and U waves. It increases the risk of arrhythmias, especially in patients on digoxin.
Answer
C · Flattened T waves and prominent U waves
8.Clinical nursing
Answer: D · "I will rub the area firmly after the injection."
Why this is the answer
Rubbing the site after an anticoagulant injection increases bruising and is avoided. Rotating sites, injecting subcutaneously and reporting bleeding are correct.
Answer
D · "I will rub the area firmly after the injection."
9.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: C · Just before the meal, giving insulin when the food is ready
Why this is the answer
Rapid-acting insulin starts working within about 15 minutes, so glucose is checked before the meal and the insulin is given when the meal is available, usually within 15 minutes of eating. Giving it without food can cause hypoglycemia.
Answer
C · Just before the meal, giving insulin when the food is ready
10.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: B · Low hemoglobin, small red cells (low MCV) and low ferritin
Why this is the answer
Iron deficiency causes a microcytic anemia (low MCV) with low iron stores (low ferritin). Large red cells suggest vitamin B12 or folate deficiency.Checked against:Ferritin Blood Test · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2025); RBC indices · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2026)
Answer
B · Low hemoglobin, small red cells (low MCV) and low ferritin
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: HCO₃⁻ = 26.1 mmol/L
Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.
Change in PaCO₂
|61 − 40| = 21 mmHg → 2.1 × 10 mmHg
Expected HCO₃⁻
HCO₃⁻ = 24 + 1·2.1 = 26.1 mmol/L
Answer
HCO₃⁻ = 26.1 mmol/L
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: A–a gradient = 19.73 mmHg
Derived values: calculated serum osmolality is 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea with all values in mmol/L (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8 with glucose and BUN in mg/dL); normal is about 275–295 mOsm/kg. The P/F ratio is PaO₂ divided by FiO₂ as a fraction. The alveolar oxygen pressure is PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 mmHg at sea level, and the A–a gradient is PAO₂ − PaO₂.
Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC.
Five steps
1. Rate: 8 QRS complexes in 6 s, × 10 = 80 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular (0.76 s) except for the early beats and the pause after each of them.
3. P waves: upright before every narrow QRS; none before the early wide beats.
4. PR interval: 0.16 s, constant, within 0.12–0.20 s.
5. QRS: 0.08 s in the sinus beats; the early beats are wide (0.16 s) and bizarre, with the T wave pointing the other way.
Interpretation
sinus rhythm with PVCs
Answer
sinus rhythm with PVCs
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm
Paced rhythms: a pacemaker impulse shows as a narrow vertical pacing spike. After a ventricular spike the QRS is wide (0.12 s or more), because the impulse spreads from the lead through the muscle instead of the conduction system; with right-ventricular pacing it is often mostly negative in lead II. A spike before each P wave means atrial pacing, and a dual-chamber (AV) pacemaker shows an atrial spike and a P wave, then, after the programmed AV delay, a ventricular spike and a wide QRS. Capture means every spike is followed by a depolarisation. Failure to capture is a spike without a P wave or QRS after it; failure to sense (spikes that ignore the patient’s own beats) and failure to pace (no spike when one is due) are the other classic malfunctions.
Five steps
1. Rate: R–R = 21 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 21 ≈ 71 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 0.84 s.
3. P waves: each P wave follows its own pacing spike (atrial pacing).
4. AV interval: the second spike comes 0.18 s after the first one (the programmed AV delay).
5. QRS: 0.14 s, wide, right after the second spike (ventricular pacing).
Interpretation
dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm
Answer
dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm
The paced QRS is wide by nature; do not call it a bundle branch block or a ventricular rhythm.
15.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: B · Stop the infusion
Why this is the answer
Stopping the drug stops further exposure to the allergen. The nurse then calls for help and prepares epinephrine as prescribed for anaphylaxis. Slowing the infusion still gives more of the drug, and documentation comes later.
Answer
B · Stop the infusion
16.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: B · “I will take ibuprofen every day for my headaches.”
Why this is the answer
NSAIDs such as ibuprofen can raise lithium levels and cause toxicity. Steady fluid and salt intake and regular blood tests help keep levels safe.
Answer
B · “I will take ibuprofen every day for my headaches.”