1.Easy
A raised procalcitonin level most strongly suggests:
- AIron-deficiency anemia
- BA viral common cold
- CA bacterial infection
- DAn allergic reaction
2.Easy
In the US (NCEP ATP III) classification, which total cholesterol level is called desirable for an adult?
- ABetween 250 and 300 mg/dL (6.5–7.8 mmol/L)
- BBelow 200 mg/dL (5.2 mmol/L)
- CAbove 240 mg/dL (6.2 mmol/L)
- DBelow 300 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L)
3.Easy
What does a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) show?
- AA low level of iron stored in the bone marrow
- BDamage to heart muscle within the past few hours
- CA specific infection of the urinary tract by bacteria
- DInflammation somewhere in the body, without showing where
4.Medium
Which treatment lowers serum potassium by moving it into the cells?
- AOral potassium chloride supplements
- BIV regular insulin given with glucose
- CIV 0.45% sodium chloride infusion
- DIV calcium gluconate given over 10 minutes
5.Medium
A patient with type 2 diabetes has a target HbA1c below 7% (53 mmol/mol). Today's result is 7.8% (62 mmol/mol). What is the best interpretation?
- AAverage glucose over the past months has been above the target
- BGlucose control has been excellent for the past several months
- CThe patient has had frequent episodes of severe hypoglycemia
- DThe result shows today's fasting glucose is above the target
6.Medium
When should a blood sample for a digoxin level be drawn to be interpreted correctly?
- AOnly after a meal, because food is needed for absorption
- BAt least 6–8 hours after a dose, often just before the next one
- CWithin 30 minutes after an oral dose to show the peak level
- DAt any time, because digoxin levels do not change during the day
7.Hard
A patient with right upper abdominal pain from gallstones now has jaundice, a total bilirubin of 4.8 mg/dL (82 µmol/L) and a raised ALP. What is the most likely cause?
- AHemolysis caused by the gallstones
- BA stone blocking the common bile duct
- CUncomplicated gallbladder inflammation
- DGilbert syndrome triggered by pain
8.Hard
A patient on high-dose dexamethasone has a white cell count of 15 × 10³/µL, mostly mature neutrophils with no bands. They have no fever and no signs of infection. What is the most likely explanation?
- AA new leukemia that is confirmed by this result alone
- BA laboratory error, because steroids always lower the white count
- CA steroid effect that moves neutrophils into the circulating blood
- DCertain sepsis that needs antibiotics started without delay
Answer key
- 1. C · A bacterial infection
- 2. B · Below 200 mg/dL (5.2 mmol/L)
- 3. D · Inflammation somewhere in the body, without showing where
- 4. B · IV regular insulin given with glucose
- 5. A · Average glucose over the past months has been above the target
- 6. B · At least 6–8 hours after a dose, often just before the next one
- 7. B · A stone blocking the common bile duct
- 8. C · A steroid effect that moves neutrophils into the circulating blood
Full step-by-step solutions: practise this topic on examproblems.com.